Category: Curriculum Map

Sponges & Cnidarians Study Guide

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Sponges & Cnidarians Quiz

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.

mc001-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which organism is most closely related to a jellyfish?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 2.
Which of the following distinguishes sponges from other invertebrates?
a.
 They are not motile in any stage of their life cycle.
b.
 They obtain nutrients by diffusion rather than by ingestion.
c.
 Their cells are not organized into tissues.
d.
 They reproduce only asexually.
 3.
Sponges
a.
 are nonsymmetrical.
b.
 lack organization into tissues and organs.
c.
 possess cells that are capable of recognizing other sponge cells.
d.
 All of the above
 4.
Collar cells
a.
 are specialized for reproduction.
b.
 draw water into the body of a sponge.
c.
 produce cytochrome oxidase.
d.
 are parasitic protozoa.
 5.
Spicules are
a.
 flexible protein fibers.
b.
 hard spike-like structures in the wall of a sponge.
c.
 similar to seeds; a complete sponge can grow from each spicule.
d.
 used for taking in food and water.
 6.
Adult sponges
a.
 have body walls with many pores.
b.
 possess true tissues.
c.
 are active swimmers.
d.
 use stinging cells to capture prey.
 7.
Skeletal support in sponges may be provided by
a.
 spicules of calcium carbonate.
b.
 spicules of silicon dioxide.
c.
 fibers called spongin.
d.
 All of the above
 8.
Sponges obtain food
a.
 through photosynthesis.
b.
 by using their spicules to paralyze protozoa.
c.
 by filtering small organisms from the water.
d.
 with their spongin.
 9.
In sponges, currents that draw water through the organism are created by
a.
 amoebocytes.
c.
 gemmules.
b.
 collar cells.
d.
 spicules.
 10.
The cells that move throughout the sponge’s body wall to deliver food to the organism’s cells are called
a.
 amoebocytes.
c.
 gemmules.
b.
 choanocytes.
d.
 spicules.
 11.
Water leaves the interior of a sponge through the
a.
 food vacuoles.
c.
 body wall.
b.
 spicules.
d.
 osculum.
 12.
collar cell : water ::
a.
 amoebocyte : nutrients and wastes
b.
 spongin : food
c.
 spicule : water
d.
 osculum : mesenchyme
 13.
The gemmules of sponges
a.
 create water currents for feeding.
b.
 are equivalent to the sperm cells of higher animals.
c.
 are equivalent to the egg cells of higher animals.
d.
 are necessary for one form of asexual reproduction.
 14.
Hermaphroditic organisms
a.
 reproduce only by asexual means.
b.
 produce both eggs and sperm.
c.
 have gemmules that are fertilized by amoebocytes.
d.
 possess only male amoebocytes.
 15.
Hermaphrodism is advantageous in sponges because
a.
 they reproduce asexually.
b.
 they have gemmules.
c.
 they are sessile.
d.
 None of the above is true; hermaphrodism does not occur in sponges.
 16.
Sponges can reproduce
a.
 by the budding of new sponges from the parent.
b.
 by a breakup of the original parent into fragments that each become a new sponge.
c.
 sexually, using sperm and eggs.
d.
 All of the above
 17.
some freshwater sponges : gemmules ::
a.
 hermaphrodites : eggs and sperm
b.
 gemmules : eggs
c.
 gemmules : sperms
d.
 amoebocytes : eggs
 18.

mc018-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which organism captures its prey using nematocysts?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 19.
Many cnidarians have two distinct life stages,
a.
 the gametophyte and the sporophyte.
b.
 the polyp and the medusa.
c.
 the egg and the adult.
d.
 the egg and the larva.
 20.
Nematocysts
a.
 contain harpoonlike structures called cnidocytes.
b.
 create water currents in sponges.
c.
 can spear a cnidarian’s prey.
d.
 are found in most predatory ctenophores.
 21.
The cnidarian’s inner layer of tissue is specialized for
a.
 digestion.
c.
 capturing prey.
b.
 reproduction.
d.
 All of the above
 22.
The outer cell layer of a cnidarian is the
a.
 ectoderm.
c.
 endoderm.
b.
 mesoglea.
d.
 epidermis.
 23.
Which of the following is a characteristic associated only with cnidarians?
a.
 a digestive tract with a single opening
b.
 cnidocytes specialized for defense and capturing prey
c.
 choanocytes containing nematocysts
d.
 a parasitic life cycle
 24.
sponges : fewer than three body layers ::
a.
 ctenophores : no body symmetry
b.
 sponges : bilateral symmetry
c.
 cnidarians : nerve net
d.
 cnidarians : choanocytes
 25.
The phylum Cnidaria includes all of the following except
a.
 jellyfish.
c.
 sea anemones.
b.
 squids.
d.
 corals.
 26.
Planula larvae of scyphozoans
a.
 result from fertilization of eggs by sperm.
b.
 swim freely through the water.
c.
 settle to the ocean bottom and grow into polyps.
d.
 All of the above
 27.
The hydra is unique among the hydrozoans because it
a.
 is an active swimmer.
b.
 lives in colonies.
c.
 is strictly a marine species.
d.
 has no medusa stage.
 28.
Which of the following is not sessile as an adult?
a.
 sponge
b.
 coral
c.
 sea anemone
d.
 Portuguese man-of-war
 29.
Sea anemones are
a.
 medusae.
c.
 larvae.
b.
 polyps.
d.
 eggs.

The diagram below illustrates the life cycle of the jellyfish.

nar001-1.jpg
 30.
Refer to the illustration above. Which stage is called a planula?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 None of the above
 31.
Refer to the illustration above. Which stage reproduces asexually?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 None of the above
 32.
Anthozoans include
a.
 jellyfish.
b.
 hydras.
c.
 the Portuguese man-of-war.
d.
 sea anemones and corals.
 33.
Scyphozoans, such as jellyfish, spend most of their lives as
a.
 polyps.
c.
 corals.
b.
 medusae.
d.
 parasites.
 34.
The class of cnidarians that typically live only as polyps is the
a.
 Anthozoa.
c.
 Scyphozoa.
b.
 Hydrozoa.
d.
 None of the above
 35.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of ctenophores?
a.
 bioluminescence
b.
 movement by means of beating cilia
c.
 use of cnidocytes to capture prey
d.
 hermaphrodism
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 36.
____________________ is drawn into a sponge through pores and leaves through the osculum.
 37.
A network of tough, flexible protein fibers called ____________________ provides support in some sponges.
 38.
Spike-like objects that make up the skeleton of some sponges are called ____________________.
 39.
A sponge’s ____________________ may be composed of either calcium carbonate or silicon dioxide.
 40.
Food molecules are carried throughout a sponge’s body by ____________________.
 41.
Food-filled balls of amoebocytes that are involved in asexual reproduction in sponges are called ____________________.
 42.
An organism that produces both eggs and sperm is called a(n) ____________________.
 43.
A free-floating, gelatinous body form of a cnidarian is called a(n) ____________________, while an attached body form is called a(n) ____________________.
 44.
Cnidarians have two cell layers, the epidermis and the ____________________.
 45.
A coral is a member of the class ____________________.
 46.
Ctenophores are the largest organisms that move by the beating of ____________________.

 
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Quiz Genetics

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Genetics

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
Genetics is the branch of biology that involves the study of how different traits are transmitted from one generation to the next.
2.
Mendel discovered predictable patterns in the inheritance of traits.
3.
The scientific study of heredity is called genetics.
4.
In Mendel’s experiments with the flower color of pea plants, only the parental generation produced white flowers.
5.
Mendel concluded that the patterns of inheritance are determined entirely by the environment.
6.
The law of independent assortment was proposed by Mendel to explain his observations of inheritance patterns.
7.
Genes on chromosomes are the units of inheritance.
8.
The allele for a recessive trait is usually represented by a capital letter.
9.
Heterozygous individuals have two of the same alleles for a particular gene.
10.
A probability of 1/4 is equal to a probability of 75 percent.
11.
The dominant allele for tallness in pea plants is represented by the letter t.
12.
In codominance, two alleles are expressed at the same time.
13.
All genes have only two alleles.
14.
A dihybrid cross involves two pairs of contrasting traits.
15.
Crosses involving a study of one gene are called monohybrid crosses.
 

Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
16.
A reproductive process in which fertilization occurs within a single plant is ____________________.
17.
Mendel produced strains of pea plants through the process of ____________________.
18.
____________________ refers to the transmission of traits from parent to offspring in sexually reproducing organisms.
19.
In heterozygous individuals, only the ____________________ allele achieves expression.
20.
A trait that is not expressed in the F1 generation resulting from the crossbreeding of two genetically different, true-breeding organisms is called ____________________.
21.
The principle that states that one factor may mask the effect of another factor is the principle of ____________________.
22.
In Mendel’s experiments, a trait that disappeared in the F1 generation but reappeared in the F2 generation was always a ____________________.
23.
The cellular process that results in the segregation of Mendel’s factors is ____________________.
24.
Mendel formulated two principles known as the laws of ____________________.
25.
An organism that has two identical alleles for a trait is called ____________________.
26.
An organism’s ____________________ refers to the set of alleles it has inherited.
27.
The likelihood that a specific event will occur is called ____________________.
In pea plants, tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t). Crosses between plants with these traits can be analyzed using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.
T
t
T
1
2
t
3
4
28.
Refer to the illustration above. The parents shown in the Punnett square could have offspring with a genotype ratio of ____________________.
29.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the plant that would be represented in box “4” of the Punnett square would be ____________________.
30.
A cross involving two pairs of contrasting traits is a(n) ____________________ cross.

 
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Protein Synthesis Study Guide

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Protein Synthesis Study Guide

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
What did Griffith observe when he injected into mice a mixture of heat-killed disease-causing bacteria and live harmless bacteria?
a.
 The disease-causing bacteria changed into harmless bacteria.
b.
 The mice developed pneumonia.
c.
 The harmless bacteria died.
d.
 The mice were unaffected.
 2.
Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?
a.
 ribose + phosphate group + thymine
b.
 ribose + phosphate group + uracil
c.
 deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil
d.
 deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine
 3.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a.
 each with two new strands.
b.
 one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
c.
 each with one new strand and one original strand.
d.
 each with two original strands.
 4.
During mitosis, the
a.
 DNA molecules unwind.
b.
 histones and DNA molecules separate.
c.
 DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
d.
 nucleosomes become less tightly packed.
 5.
Unlike DNA, RNA contains
a.
 adenine.
c.
 phosphate groups.
b.
 uracil.
d.
 thymine.
 6.
Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis?
a.
 transfer RNA only
b.
 messenger RNA only
c.
 ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only
d.
 messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA
 7.
During transcription, an RNA molecule is formed
a.
 that is complementary to both strands of DNA.
b.
 that is complementary to neither strand of DNA.
c.
 that is double-stranded.
d.
 inside the nucleus.
 8.
How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids?
a.
 3
c.
 9
b.
 6
d.
 12
 9.
Which of the following terms is LEAST closely related to the others?
a.
 intron
c.
 polypeptide
b.
 tRNA
d.
 anticodon
 10.
Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of the genetic code?
a.
 rRNA
c.
 mRNA
b.
 tRNA
d.
 RNA polymerase
 11.
Which of the following is NOT a gene mutation?
a.
 inversion
c.
 deletion
b.
 insertion
d.
 substitution
 12.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a.
 Mutations do not occur in hox genes.
b.
 Hox genes that are found in different animals are very different from each other.
c.
 Hox genes control the normal development of an animal.
d.
 Hox genes occur in clusters.
 13.
Avery’s experiments showed that bacteria are transformed by
a.
 RNA.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 DNA.
d.
 carbohydrates.
 14.

Figure 12-5 shows the structure of a(an)

mc014-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–5

a.
 DNA molecule.
c.
 RNA molecule.
b.
 amino acid.
d.
 protein.
 15.
DNA is copied during a process called
a.
 replication.
c.
 transcription.
b.
 translation.
d.
 transformation.
 16.
In eukaryotes, DNA
a.
 is located in the nucleus.
c.
 is located in the ribosomes.
b.
 floats freely in the cytoplasm.
d.
 is circular.
 17.
RNA contains the sugar
a.
 ribose.
c.
 glucose.
b.
 deoxyribose.
d.
 lactose.
 18.
Which RNA molecule carries amino acids?
a.
 messenger RNA
c.
 ribosomal RNA
b.
 transfer RNA
d.
 RNA polymerase
 19.
What is produced during transcription?
a.
 RNA molecules
c.
 RNA polymerase
b.
 DNA molecules
d.
 proteins
 20.

What does Figure 12-6 show?

mc020-1.jpg

Figure 12-6

a.
 anticodons
b.
 the order in which amino acids are linked
c.
 the code for splicing mRNA
d.
 the genetic code
 21.
What happens during the process of translation?
a.
 Messenger RNA is made from DNA.
b.
 The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.
c.
 Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA.
d.
 Copies of DNA molecules are made.
 22.
Genes contain instructions for assembling
a.
 purines.
c.
 proteins.
b.
 nucleosomes.
d.
 pyrimidines.
 23.
A mutation that involves a single nucleotide is called a(an)
a.
 chromosomal mutation.
c.
 point mutation.
b.
 inversion.
d.
 translocation.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 24.

The structure labeled X in Figure 12-1 is a(an) ____________________.

co024-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–1
 25.
The order of nitrogenous bases in DNA determines the order of ____________________ in proteins.
 26.
There is no ____________________ that is specified by a stop codon on an mRNA molecule.
 27.
The lac repressor releases the operator in the presence of ____________________.
 28.
In eukaryotes, proteins that attract RNA polymerase bind to ____________________ sequences in DNA.
 29.
According to the principle of ____________________, hydrogen bonds can form only between adenine and thymine, and between guanine and cytosine.
 30.
Chromatin contains proteins called ____________________.
 31.

In Figure 12-7, A, B, and C are three types of ____________________.

co031-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–7
 32.
After introns are cut out of an RNA molecule, the remaining ____________________ are spliced back together to form the final messenger RNA.
 33.
A mutation in a series of genes, called the ____________________, can change the organs that develop in specific parts of an embryo.
 

Short Answer
 34.
At the beginning of DNA replication, what two processes “unzip” the two strands of a DNA molecule?
 35.

In Figure 12-2, which molecule is tRNA, and what is its function?

sa035-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–2
 36.

According to Figure 12-3, what codons specify the amino acid arginine?

sa036-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–3
 37.
What happens to lac repressors in E. coli when lactose is present?
 38.
What are the three main parts of an RNA nucleotide?
 39.
What must happen to a DNA molecule before RNA polymerase can make RNA?
 40.
What causes translation to stop?
 41.
What is a mutation?
 

Essay
 42.
Describe the structure of a DNA molecule.
 43.
Contrast the functions of the three main types of RNA.
 

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

nar001-1.jpg

 

Figure 12–4
 44.
Interpreting Graphics What process is illustrated in Figure 12-4?
 45.
Interpreting Graphics Identify structure C in Figure 12-4.
 46.
Interpreting Graphics Which labeled structure in Figure 12-4 is a codon?
 47.
Inferring What is the relationship between the codons and anticodons in Figure 12-4? How is this relationship important?
 48.
Predicting In Figure 12-4, what will happen after the ribosome joins the methionine and phenylalanine?

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

nar002-1.jpg

Figure 12–8
 49.
Classifying What general type of mutation results from processes A, B, C, and D in Figure 12-8?
 50.
Interpreting Graphics In Figure 12-8, which process or processes involve two chromosomes?
 51.
Comparing and Contrasting Contrast process A and process B in Figure 12-8.
 52.
Interpreting Graphics During which process in Figure 12-8 does a segment of a chromosome become oriented in the reverse direction?
 53.
Interpreting Graphics In Figure 12-8, which process produces two chromosomes with translocations?

 
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Quiz Protein Synthesis

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Protein Synthesis

 

 

Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
1.
In eukaryotes, gene expression is related to the coiling and uncoiling of ____________________.
2.
A DNA subunit composed of a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen-containing base is called a(n) ____________________.
3.
The name of the five-carbon sugar that makes up a part of the backbone of molecules of DNA is ____________________.
4.
Knowing the order of the bases in a gene permits scientists to determine the exact order of the amino acids in the expressed ____________________.
5.
Due to the strict pairing of nitrogen base pairs in DNA molecules, the two strands are said to be ____________________ to each other.
6.
According to base-pairing rules, adenine pairs with ____________________ and guanine pairs with ____________________.
7.
The enzyme that is responsible for replicating molecules of DNA by attaching complementary bases in the correct sequence is ____________________.
8.
Enzymes called ____________________ are responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds that hold the complementary strands together.
9.
The process by which DNA copies itself is called ____________________.
10.
Molecules of ____________________ carry instructions for protein synthesis from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
11.
The nitrogen-containing base that is found only in RNA is ____________________.
12.
The enzyme responsible for making RNA is called ____________________.
13.
The form of ribonucleic acid that carries genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes is ____________________.
14.
A ____________________ is a sequence of DNA at the beginning of a gene that signals RNA polymerase to begin transcription.
15.
Messenger RNA is produced during the process of ____________________.
16.
Of the 64 codons of mRNA, 61 code for ____________________, 3 are ____________________ signals, and one is a ____________________ signal.
17.
Nucleotide sequences of tRNA that are complementary to codons on mRNA are called ____________________.
18.
The sequence of three nucleotides that code for specific amino acids or stop signals in the synthesis of protein is called a(n) ____________________.
19.
The information contained in a molecule of messenger RNA is used to make protein during the process of ____________________.
20.
During translation, amino acids are brought to the ribosomes by molecules of ____________________.

 
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Biomes of the World

%CODE1% Biomes of the World

 

T S O V C D A R P R L V T T S
Q S L U E I E B E G A L U D R
X T E S S M T T I V D E N B T
N A E R U E A O V O I M D H K
Z R U S O W R J I N T O R E R
T M N T H F C O H B R I A R E
S O L S N H N A V C E B C B C
C P E R F K Q I R I T A F I U
N R S A V A N N A N N Y C V D
F E N I R A M F D R I M U O O
G R A S S L A N D Z A V O R R
S U O U D I C E D G N J O E P
O H Z G L J Y X I B Y X F R W
U C T C T N Y A Q B A J S U E
X N B S O O T D E K P T N B X

Find each term and then number and define it on the back of this sheet.

 

ABIOTIC BIOME BIOTIC
CARNIVORE CONSUMER DECIDUOUS
DESERT FRESHWATER GRASSLAND
HERBIVORE INTERTIDAL MARINE
OMNIVORE PRODUCER RAINFOREST
SAVANNA TAIGA TUNDRA