Category: Curriculum Map

Study Guide Cellular Respiration

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
When cells break down food molecules, energy
a.
 is released all at once.
b.
 is released entirely as body heat into the environment.
c.
 is temporarily stored in ATP molecules.
d.
 causes excitation of electrons in chlorophyll molecules.
 2.
ATP
a.
 contains five phosphate groups.
b.
 is essential for a cell to perform all the tasks necessary for life.
c.
 is found only in bacteria.
d.
 All of the above
 3.
A substance produced during photosynthesis that is used for completion of cellular respiration is
a.
 water.
c.
 NADPH.
b.
 ATP.
d.
 oxygen.
 4.
The process of cellular respiration
a.
 is performed only by organisms that are incapable of photosynthesis.
b.
 breaks down food molecules to release stored energy.
c.
 occurs before plants are able to carry out photosynthesis.
d.
 occurs only in animals.
 5.
cellular respiration : organic compounds ::
a.
 light bulb : glass
c.
 automobile : gasoline
b.
 trunk : clothing
d.
 country : nation
 6.
When glycolysis occurs,
a.
 a molecule of glucose is split.
b.
 two molecules of pyruvic acid are made.
c.
 some ATP is produced.
d.
 All of the above
 7.
The name of the process that takes place when organic compounds are broken down in the absence of oxygen is
a.
 respiration.
c.
 fermentation.
b.
 oxidation.
d.
 All of the above
 8.
When muscles are exercised extensively in the absence of sufficient oxygen,
a.
 a large amount of ATP is formed.
b.
 NADH molecules split.
c.
 lactic acid is produced.
d.
 cellular respiration ceases.
 9.
You have been growing some animal cells in culture. The cells grow well for several weeks, and then their growth slows down. You conduct some tests and determine that there is a lot of lactic acid in the culture fluid. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the poor growth of the cells?
a.
 There is too much glucose in the culture fluid.
b.
 There is not enough glucose in the culture fluid.
c.
 There is too much oxygen in the culture fluid.
d.
 There is not enough oxygen in the culture fluid.
 10.
If the formation of a standard amount of ATP under certain conditions requires 12 kcal of energy and the complete oxidation of glucose yields 686 kcal of energy, how efficient is glycolysis at extracting energy from glucose?
a.
 1.7%
c.
 7.0%
b.
 3.5%
d.
 35%
 11.
Cellular respiration takes place in two stages:
a.
 glycolysis and fermentation.
b.
 Stage 1 and Stage 2 of photosynthesis.
c.
 glycolysis, then aerobic respiration.
d.
 aerobic respiration, then glycolysis.
 12.
In cellular respiration, a two-carbon molecule combines with a four-carbon molecule to form citric acid as part of
a.
 glycolysis.
b.
 carbon fixation.
c.
 the Krebs cycle.
d.
 the electron transport chain.
 13.
Acetyl coenzyme A
a.
 is formed from the breakdown of pyruvic acid.
b.
 enters the Krebs cycle.
c.
 can be used in synthesis of needed molecules.
d.
 All of the above
 14.
Glycolysis and aerobic respiration are different in that
a.
 glycolysis occurs on the cell membrane, while aerobic respiration occurs in mitochondria.
b.
 glycolysis occurs only in photosynthesis, while aerobic respiration is part of cellular respiration.
c.
 glycolysis occurs in the absence of oxygen, while aerobic respiration requires oxygen.
d.
 There is no difference; these terms are different names for the same process.
 15.
Which of the following is not formed during the Krebs cycle?
a.
 CO2
c.
 NADH
b.
 FADH2
d.
 NADPH
 16.
Which of the following is not part of cellular respiration?
a.
 electron transport
c.
 the Krebs cycle
b.
 glycolysis
d.
 the Calvin cycle
 17.
With oxygen present, the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain
a.
 provide organisms an alternative to glycolysis.
b.
 produce most of the ATP needed for life.
c.
 break down glucose to produce carbon dioxide, water, and ATP.
d.
 All of the above
 18.
Water is an end product in
a.
 lactic acid formation.
c.
 the Krebs cycle.
b.
 fermentation.
d.
 the electron transport chain.
 19.
Krebs cycle : CO2 ::
a.
 glycolysis : glucose
b.
 acetyl CoA formation : O2
c.
 cellular respiration : O2
d.
 electron transport chain : ATP
 20.
ATP molecules produced during aerobic respiration
a.
 remain in the mitochondria in which they are formed.
b.
 are stored in chloroplasts of the same cell in which they are formed.
c.
 enter the cell’s cytoplasm through the membranes of the mitochondria in which they are formed.
d.
 are distributed by the bloodstream to all cells in the body.
 21.
At the end of the electron transport chain,
a.
 the electrons combine with oxygen and protons to form water.
b.
 the electrons are used in the formation of ethyl alcohol.
c.
 the electrons build up inside the mitochondria and diffuse back to a thylakoid.
d.
 None of the above
C6 H12O6 + 6O2 + ADP + P ® 6CO2 + 6 H2O + MOLECULE A
 22.
The process shown in the equation above begins in the cytoplasm of a cell and ends in the
a.
 cytoplasm.
c.
 endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
 mitochondria.
d.
 lysosome.
 23.
The equation above summarizes the process known as
a.
 photosynthesis.
c.
 cellular respiration.
b.
 fermentation.
d.
 protein breakdown.
 24.
The molecule referred to as “molecule A” in the equation above is
a.
 NADPH.
c.
 NADH.
b.
 ATP.
d.
 ADP.
 25.
When living cells break down molecules, energy is
a.
 stored as ADP.
c.
 released as heat.
b.
 stored as ATP.
d.
 Both b and c
 26.
Which of the following is the best explanation for the presence of both chloroplasts and mitochondria in plant cells?
a.
 In the light, plants are photosynthetic autotrophs. In the dark, they are heterotrophs.
b.
 If plants cannot produce enough ATP in the process of photosynthesis to meet their energy needs, they can produce it in aerobic respiration.
c.
 Sugars are produced in chloroplasts. These sugars can be stored in the plant for later use, converted to other chemicals, or broken down in aerobic respiration to yield ATP for the plant to use to meet its energy needs.
d.
 The leaves and sometimes the stems of plants contain chloroplasts, which produce ATP to meet the energy needs of these plant parts. The roots of plants contain mitochondria, which produce ATP to meet the energy needs of these plant parts.
 27.
In cellular respiration, the most energy is transferred during
a.
 glycolysis.
b.
 lactic acid fermentation.
c.
 the Krebs cycle.
d.
 the electron transport chain
 28.
Electrons are donated to the electron transport chain by
a.
 ATP and NADH.
c.
 ATP and NAD+.
b.
 FADH2 and NADH.
d.
 NAD+ and ATP.
 29.
If the formation of 38 molecules of ATP requires 266 kcal of energy and the complete oxidation of glucose yields 686 kcal of energy, how efficient is cellular respiration at extracting energy from glucose?
a.
 20%
c.
 25%
b.
 39%
d.
 100%
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 30.
During fermentation, either ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide or ____________________ is formed.
 31.
Of the maximum possible yield of 38 ATP molecules produced by the complete oxidation of one glucose molecule, ____________________ molecules of ATP are produced during glycolysis.
 32.
The Krebs cycle takes place in the _________________________.
 

Essay
 33.
The relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is usually described as a cycle. Briefly explain. Write your answer in the space below.

 
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Genetics Practice Test

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Genetics Practice Test

 

 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.
Mendel prevented self-pollination of his plants by
a.
 growing only one kind of plant.
b.
 preventing crossing-over.
c.
 removing the anthers of the plants.
d.
 removing the stigmas of the plants.
 2.
The “father” of genetics was
a.
 T. A. Knight.
c.
 Gregor Mendel.
b.
 Hans Krebs.
d.
 None of the above
 3.
Mendel obtained his P generation by allowing the plants to
a.
 self-pollinate.
c.
 assort independently.
b.
 cross-pollinate.
d.
 segregate.
 4.
What is the probability that the offspring of a homozygous dominant individual and a homozygous recessive individual will exhibit the dominant phenotype?
a.
 0.25
c.
 0.66
b.
 0.5
d.
 1.0
 5.
True-breeding pea plants always
a.
 are pollinated by hand.
b.
 produce offspring each of which can have multiple forms of a trait.
c.
 produce offspring each of which can have only one form of a trait.
d.
 are heterozygous.
 6.
The first filial (F1) generation is the result of
a.
 cross-pollination among parents and the next generation.
b.
 crosses between individuals of the parental generation.
c.
 crosses between the offspring of a parental cross.
d.
 self-fertilization between parental stock.
 7.
Which of the following is the designation for Mendel’s original pure strains of plants?
a.
 P
c.
 F1
b.
 P1
d.
 F2
 8.
F2 : F1 ::
a.
 P : F1
c.
 F1 : P
b.
 F1 : F2
d.
 dominant trait : recessive trait
 9.
The passing of traits from parents to offspring is called
a.
 genetics.
c.
 development.
b.
 heredity.
d.
 maturation.
 10.
A genetic trait that appears in every generation of offspring is called
a.
 dominant.
c.
 recessive.
b.
 phenotypic.
d.
 superior.
 11.
homozygous : heterozygous ::
a.
 heterozygous : Bb
c.
 BB : Bb
b.
 probability : predicting chances
d.
 homozygous : BB
 12.
Mendel’s finding that the inheritance of one trait had no effect on the inheritance of another became known as the
a.
 law of dominance.
b.
 law of universal inheritance.
c.
 law of separate convenience.
d.
 law of independent assortment.
 13.
To describe how traits can disappear and reappear in a certain pattern from generation to generation, Mendel proposed
a.
 the law of independent assortment.
b.
 the law of segregation.
c.
 the law of genotypes.
d.
 that the F2 generation will produce only purple flowers.
 14.
The law of segregation explains that
a.
 alleles of a gene separate from each other during meiosis.
b.
 different alleles of a gene can never be found in the same organism.
c.
 each gene of an organism ends up in a different gamete.
d.
 each gene is found on a different molecule of DNA.
 15.
When Mendel crossed pea plants that differed in two characteristics, such as flower color and plant height,
a.
 these experiments led to his law of segregation.
b.
 he found that the inheritance of one trait did not influence the inheritance of the other trait.
c.
 he found that the inheritance of one trait influenced the inheritance of the other trait.
d.
 these experiments were considered failures because the importance of his work was not recognized.
 16.
The phenotype of an organism
a.
 represents its genetic composition.
b.
 reflects all the traits that are actually expressed.
c.
 occurs only in dominant pure organisms.
d.
 cannot be seen.
 17.
If an individual has two recessive alleles for the same trait, the individual is said to be
a.
 homozygous for the trait.
b.
 haploid for the trait.
c.
 heterozygous for the trait.
d.
 mutated.
 18.
An individual heterozygous for a trait and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait are crossed and produce many offspring. These offspring are likely to be
a.
 all the same genotype.
b.
 of two different phenotypes.
c.
 of three different phenotypes.
d.
 all the same phenotype.
 19.
Tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t) in pea plants. Which of the following represents the genotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for tallness?
a.
 T
c.
 Tt
b.
 TT
d.
 tt

In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant over not having freckles (f). The inheritance of these traits can be studied using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.

nar001-1.jpg
 20.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotype represented in box 1 in the Punnett square would
a.
 be homozygous for freckles.
b.
 have an extra freckles chromosome.
c.
 be heterozygous for freckles.
d.
 have freckles chromosomes.
 21.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotype in box 3 of the Punnett square is
a.
 FF.
c.
 ff.
b.
 Ff.
d.
 None of the above
 22.
A trait that occurs in 450 individuals out of a total of 1,800 individuals occurs with a probability of
a.
 0.04.
c.
 0.50.
b.
 0.25.
d.
 0.75.
 23.
How many different phenotypes can be produced by a pair of codominant alleles?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
nar002-1.jpg
 24.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype represented by box 1 is
a.
 green, inflated.
c.
 yellow, inflated.
b.
 green, constricted.
d.
 yellow, constricted.
 25.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotype represented by box 2 is
a.
 GgIi.
c.
 GI.
b.
 GGIi.
d.
 Gi.
 26.
2,000 yellow seeds : 8,000 total seeds ::
a.
 1 : 6
c.
 1 : 3
b.
 1 : 8
d.
 1 : 4

In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur (b). Consider the following cross between two rabbits.

nar003-1.jpg
 27.
Refer to the illustration above. The device shown, which is used to determine the probable outcome of genetic crosses, is called a
a.
 Mendelian box.
c.
 genetic graph.
b.
 Punnett square.
d.
 phenotypic paradox.
 28.
Refer to the illustration above. Both of the parents in the cross are
a.
 black.
b.
 brown.
c.
 homozygous dominant.
d.
 homozygous recessive.
 29.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the offspring indicated by box 3 would be
a.
 brown.
b.
 black.
c.
 a mixture of brown and black.
d.
 The phenotype cannot be determined.
 30.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotypic ratio of the F1 generation would be
a.
 1:1.
c.
 1:3.
b.
 3:1.
d.
 1:2:1.
 31.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:0
c.
 1:2:1
b.
 1:1
d.
 1:3:1
 32.
What fraction of the offspring resulting from a heterozygous ´ heterozygous dihybrid cross are homozygous recessive for both traits?
a.
 9/16
c.
 3/16
b.
 1/4
d.
 1/16
 33.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a heterozygous ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:2:1
c.
 1:2
b.
 1:3:1
d.
 1:0
 34.
What is the expected phenotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a.
 1:3:1
c.
 2:1
b.
 1:2:1
d.
 1:0
nar004-1.jpg
 35.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype represented by box 1 is
a.
 round, yellow.
c.
 wrinkled, yellow.
b.
 round, green.
d.
 wrinkled, green.
 36.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotype represented by box 2 is
a.
 RRYY.
c.
 RrYy.
b.
 RrYY.
d.
 rrYy.
 37.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following boxes represents the same phenotype as box 7?
a.
 3
c.
 5
b.
 4
d.
 6
 38.
An organism that has inherited two of the same alleles of a gene from its parents is called
a.
 hereditary.
c.
 homozygous.
b.
 heterozygous.
d.
 a mutation.
 39.
In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant over green seeds. What would be the expected genotype ratio in a cross between a plant with green seeds and a plant that is heterozygous for seed color?
a.
 1:3
c.
 4:1
b.
 1:2:1
d.
 1:1
 40.
codominance : both traits are displayed ::
a.
 probability : crosses
b.
 heterozygous : alleles are the same
c.
 homozygous : alleles are the same
d.
 Punnett square : chromosomes combine
 41.
The difference between a monohybrid cross and a dihybrid cross is that
a.
 monohybrid crosses involve traits for which only one allele exists, while dihybrid traits involve two alleles.
b.
 monohybrid crosses involve self-pollination, while dihybrid crosses involve cross-pollination.
c.
 monohybrid crosses involve one trait; dihybrid crosses involve two traits.
d.
 dihybrid crosses require two Punnett squares; monohybrid crosses need only one.
 42.
What fraction of the offspring resulting from a heterozygous ´ heterozygous dihybrid cross are heterozygous for both traits?
a.
 9/16
c.
 3/16
b.
 1/4
d.
 1/16
 43.
A cross of two individuals for a single contrasting trait is called
a.
 monohybrid.
c.
 dominant.
b.
 dihybrid.
d.
 codominant.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 44.
The transferring of pollen between plants is called ____________________.
 45.
Mendel produced true-breeding strains of pea plants through the process of ____________________.
 46.
When two members of the F1 generation are allowed to breed with each other, the offspring are referred to as the ____________________ generation.
 47.
In heterozygous individuals, only the ____________________ allele achieves expression.
 48.
The statement that the members of each pair of alleles separate when gametes are formed is known as the _________________________.
 49.
Different forms of a particular gene, which Mendel called factors, are now called ____________________.
 50.
The cellular process that results in the segregation of Mendel’s factors is ____________________.
 51.
The portion of a DNA molecule containing the coded instructions that result in a particular characteristic of an organism is called a(n) ____________________.
 52.
An organism’s ____________________ refers to the set of alleles it has inherited.
 53.
The likelihood that a specific event will occur is called ____________________.
 54.

co054-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. The box labeled “X” represents the phenotype ____________________.
 55.
A fractional probability of 1/2 is the same as a decimal probability of ____________________.

In pea plants, tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). Crosses between plants with these traits can be analyzed using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.

nar005-1.jpg
 56.
Refer to the illustration above. The parents shown in the Punnett square are likely to have offspring with a genotype ratio of ____________________.
 57.
Refer to the illustration above. Box 2 and box ____________________ in the Punnett square represent plants that would be heterozygous for tallness.
 58.
Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the plant that would be represented in box 4 of the Punnett square would be ____________________.
 59.
Refer to the illustration above. The genotype of both parents shown in the Punnett square above is ____________________.
 60.
A situation in which both alleles for a trait are expressed in a heterozygous offspring is called ____________________.
 61.
A pattern of heredity in which a heterozygous individual has a phenotype that is intermediate between the phenotypes of its two homozygous parents is called _________________________.
 62.
A table used to determine and diagram the results of a genetic cross is called a ____________________.
 63.
In genetics, lowercase letters are usually used to indicate ____________________.
 

Problem
 64.
In tomato plants, tallness is dominant over dwarfness and hairy stems are dominant over hairless stems. True-breeding (homozygous) plants that are tall and have hairy stems are available. True-breeding (homozygous) plants that are dwarf and have hairless stems are also available. Design an experiment to determine whether the genes for height and hairiness of stem are on the same or different chromosomes. Explain how you will be able to determine from the results whether the genes are on the same chromosome or different chromosomes, and whether they are close to each other or far apart if they are on the same chromosome. Write your answer in the space below.
 65.

A scientist crossed true-breeding tall and hairy-stemmed tomato plants with true-breeding dwarf and hairless-stemmed tomato plants. He found that all of the F1 plants produced as a result of this cross were tall and hairy-stemmed. He then allowed the F1 plants to pollinate each other and obtained 1000 F2 plants. Of these 1000 F2 plants, he observed the following numbers of four different phenotypes:

557 tall and hairy-stemmed plants 192 dwarf and hairy-stemmed plants
180 tall and hairless-stemmed plants 71 dwarf and hairless-stemmed plants

Write your answers to the following in the space below or on a separate sheet of paper.

a.      Which height characteristic is dominant, tallness or dwarfness?
b.      Which stem characteristic is dominant, hairiness or hairlessness?
c.      What are the genotypes of the original, true-breeding parents? (Be sure to indicate what the symbols you use stand for.)
d.      What are the genotypes of the F1 hybrid plants? (Be sure to indicate what the symbols you use stand for.)
e.      What are the genotypes of the four types of plants found in the F2 generation? (Be sure to indicate what the symbols you use stand for.)
f.      What were the expected numbers of plants of each type in the F2 generation? (Round off to the nearest whole numbers.)
g.      Why did the observed numbers of plants of each type in the F2 generation differ from the expected?
h.      How could this experiment have been changed to obtain numbers of plants of each type in the F2 generation that were closer to the expected numbers?
 

Essay
 66.
How might you go about determining the genotype of a red-flowering plant where red is dominant over white? Write your answer in the space below.
 67.
Describe pollination in pea plants. Write your answer in the space below.
 68.
In what ways did Mendel’s methods help ensure his success in unraveling the mechanics of heredity? Write your answer in the space below.
 69.
What conclusions did Gregor Mendel reach based on his observations of pea plants? Write your answer in the space below.
 70.
Describe Mendel’s observation regarding independent assortment. Write your answer in the space below.
 71.
What are three ways to express the probability of an event that occurs 500 times out of 2,000 total trials? Write your answer in the space below.
 72.
Describe how genotype and phenotype are related, and give an example. Write your answer in the space below.
 73.
Explain what is meant by homozygous and heterozygous, and give an example of each. Write your answer in the space below.
 74.
All of the offspring resulting from a cross between a red snapdragon and a white snapdragon are pink. What is a possible explanation for this? Write your answer in the space below.

 
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Protist Study Guide

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Protist Quiz

 

 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.  If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 1.
The kingdom Protista contains the eukaryotes that are not plants, animals, or fungi. _________________________
 2.
Sexual reproduction with spores evolved in protists. _________________________
 3.
Tissues, organs, and organ systems evolved in unicellular protists. _________________________
 4.
Sexual reproduction allows Chlamydomonas to delay development of new organisms until environmental conditions are favorable. _________________________
 5.
Amoebas move by means of pseudopodia. _________________________
 6.
Diatoms are the only type of protists with single shells. _________________________
 7.
Paramecium takes in food through its contractile vacuole. _________________________
 8.
Cellular slime molds form a mass of cytoplasm that has many nuclei. _________________________
 9.
Protists have an important effect on humans because they cause disease. _________________________
 10.
Malaria is caused by the protist Plasmodium and is spread by the bite of certain fleas. _________________________
 11.
Carrageenan is a product made by protists that is used to flavor many food products. _________________________
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 12.
Which of the following is not true about some or all protists?
a.
 unicellular and heterotrophic
c.
 multicellular and autotrophic
b.
 unicellular and autotrophic
d.
 multicellular and prokaryotic
 13.
The kingdom Protista does not include
a.
 most of the single-celled eukaryotes.
c.
 multicellular seaweed.
b.
 slime and water molds.
d.
 prokaryotes.
 14.
Which of the following characteristics did not evolve in the Kingdom Protista?
a.
 unicellularity
c.
 membrane-bound organelles
b.
 gametes
d.
 complex cilia and flagella
 15.
sexual reproduction : diversity ::
a.
 flagella : cilia
c.
 green algae : flagella
b.
 multicellularity : tissues
d.
 unicellularity : protists
 16.
Eukaryotes that lack the features of animals, plants, or fungi are classified in the kingdom
a.
 Archaebacteria.
c.
 Protista.
b.
 Plantae.
d.
 Animalia.
 17.
You have been given an unknown organism to identify. You find that it is unicellular and has a cell wall. Which of the following must it also have?
a.
 chloroplasts
c.
 pseudopodia
b.
 asexual reproduction
d.
 one or more flagella
 18.
When Chlamydomonas reproduces sexually, it divides by mitosis, producing
a.
 zygospores.
c.
 haploid gametes.
b.
 diploid gametes.
d.
 zoospores.
 19.
Zoospores are
a.
 produced as a result of meiosis.
c.
 produced as a result of mitosis.
b.
 diploid.
d.
 all parasitic.
 20.
The haploid, gamete-producing phase in the life cycle of some multicellular protists is known as the
a.
 zygospore generation.
c.
 conjugation generation.
b.
 gametophyte generation.
d.
 sporophyte generation.
 21.
The marine green alga Ulva reproduces sexually by
a.
 alternation of generations.
c.
 mitosis.
b.
 conjugation.
d.
 aggregation.
 22.
Pseudopodia are used for
a.
 Paramecium conjugation.
c.
 Euglena reproduction.
b.
 movement by amoebas.
d.
 Paramecium mitosis.
 23.
Amoebas capture food by
a.
 engulfing it.
c.
 trapping it with flagella.
b.
 using cilia.
d.
 taking it into an oral groove.
 24.
When an individual diatom gets too small because of repeated division, it
a.
 grows to full size in its existing shell.
b.
 slips out of its shell, grows to full size, and regenerates a new shell.
c.
 slips out of its shell, grows to full size, and reinhabits its old shell.
d.
 slips out of its shell and lives the rest of its life without a shell.
 25.
Algae are
a.
 sometimes heterotrophic.
b.
 always microscopic in size.
c.
 found in fresh water, salt water, and damp soil.
d.
 found only in fresh water.
 26.
Red algae
a.
 are multicellular.
c.
 have eyespots.
b.
 are unicellular.
d.
 have double shells.
 27.
Euglenoids are examples of protists that
a.
 can be both autotrophic and heterotrophic.
b.
 are only parasitic heterotrophs.
c.
 are always autotrophic.
d.
 swim away from light.
 28.
dinoflagellates : flagella ::
a.
 amoebas : pseudopodia
c.
 ciliates : pseudopodia
b.
 sporozoans : flagella
d.
 amoebas : flagella
 29.
The process in which two Paramecia come together to exchange parts of their genetic material is called
a.
 mitosis.
c.
 pollination.
b.
 replication.
d.
 conjugation.
nar001-1.jpg
 30.
Refer to the illustration above. Excess water in the body of the Paramecium is forced back out by the structure labeled
a.
 A
c.
 D
b.
 C
d.
 E
 31.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure that contains the cell’s chromosomes is labeled
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 E
 32.
Refer to the illustration above. Structure C is the
a.
 macronucleus.
c.
 oral groove.
b.
 contractile vacuole.
d.
 micronucleus.
 33.
Refer to the illustration above. The structure that controls routine cellular functions is labeled
a.
 A
c.
 C
b.
 B
d.
 D
 34.
Funguslike protists reproduce by releasing
a.
 gametes.
c.
 zoospores.
b.
 spores.
d.
 plasmodia.
 35.
Giardiasis is a disease that is spread
a.
 by direct person-to-person contact.
c.
 through contaminated water.
b.
 through the air.
d.
 by the Anopheles mosquito.
 36.
Chagas disease is spread by
a.
 kissing bugs.
c.
 contaminated food.
b.
 mosquitoes.
d.
 contaminated water.
 37.
Which of the following is not a human disease caused by a protist?
a.
 amebic dysentery
c.
 malaria
b.
 toxoplasmosis
d.
 tuberculosis.
 38.
giardiasis : contaminated water ::
a.
 amebic dysentery : mosquito
c.
 malaria : mosquito
b.
 amebic dysentery : giardiasis
d.
 malaria : food contamination
 39.
The protist that causes malaria reproduces in the
a.
 intestine of a human.
c.
 red blood cells of a human.
b.
 red blood cells of a mosquito.
d.
 stinger of a mosquito.
 40.
Malaria is caused by several species of
a.
 Toxoplasma.
c.
 Giardia.
b.
 Phytophthora.
d.
 Plasmodium.
 41.
The stage in the life cycle of Plasmodium in which it lives in mosquitoes and is injected into humans is called the
a.
 gametophyte.
c.
 sporophyte.
b.
 sporozoite.
d.
 zoospore.
 42.
Symbiotic protists live in all of the following organisms except
a.
 termites.
c.
 cattle.
b.
 corals.
d.
 bacteria.
 43.
Protists that play an important role in aquatic food webs are called
a.
 plankton.
c.
 anchovies.
b.
 lichens.
d.
 cyanobacteria.
 44.
The evolution of the plant kingdom can be inferred by studying
a.
 green algae.
c.
 red algae.
b.
 brown algae.
d.
 dinoflagellates.
 45.
A mass of cytoplasm that has many nuclei is a(n)
a.
 spore.
c.
 colony.
b.
 plasmodium.
d.
 amoeba.
 46.
A protist that almost destroyed the entire potato crop in Ireland in 1846 is a
a.
 plasmodial slime mold.
c.
 dinoflagellate.
b.
 cellular slime mold.
d.
 water mold.
 47.
A downy mildew gets nutrients by
a.
 photosynthesis.
b.
 absorbing them from the environment.
c.
 making them from inorganic chemicals.
d.
 making them from organic building blocks.
 48.
When an algal bloom dies, the bacteria that decompose the algae
a.
 deplete carbon dioxide levels in the water.
b.
 kill the plankton population.
c.
 deplete oxygen levels in the water.
d.
 kill fish.
 49.
A protist used by scientists to study cell movement and cell signaling is a
a.
 dinoflagellate.
c.
 paramecium.
b.
 diatom.
d.
 slime mold.
 50.
Agar is a product used to grow bacteria. Agar comes from
a.
 bacteria.
c.
 diatoms.
b.
 algae.
d.
 amoebas.
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 51.
Two important features that evolved in the protists were multicellularity and sexual reproduction with the production of ____________________.
 52.
The evolution of ____________________ allowed single-celled organisms to perform many functions at the same time.
 53.
When ______________________________ evolved, protists could become genetically diverse.
 54.
Although protists are diverse, they are all ____________________.
Life Cycle of Chlamydomonas
nar002-1.jpg
 55.
Refer to the illustration above. Arrow B is pointing to a ____________________ in the life cycle.
 56.
Refer to the illustration above. Arrow A is pointing to ____________________ in the life cycle.
 57.
According to the illustration above, Chlamydomonas reproduces both sexually and ____________________.
 58.
Some protists undergo sexual reproduction only at times of environmental ____________________.
 59.
Ulva is characterized by two distinct multicellular phases: a diploid, spore producing phase called the ____________________ generation and a haploid, gamete-producing phase called the ____________________ generation.
nar003-1.jpg
 60.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in A moves and obtains food by means of ____________________.
 61.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in C moves by means of ____________________.
 62.
Refer to the illustration above. The organism shown in B moves by means of ____________________.
 63.
Some amoeboid protists have porous shells called ____________________.
 64.
____________________ have double shells that resemble small boxes with lids.
 65.
The large brown algae that grow along coasts are called ____________________.
 66.
Protists that are strict photoautotrophs are called ____________________.
 67.
Poisonous “red tides” are caused by population explosions of ____________________.
 68.
Brown algae are the only algae that form more than one kind of ____________________.
 69.
Some protists have ____________________ that contain light-sensitive pigments.
 70.
____________________ disease is a protist-caused disease that is transmitted by kissing bugs.
 71.
Disease-causing protists are transmitted mainly by insects or by contaminated ____________________ and ____________________.
 72.
The stage of Plasmodium that infects the liver is called the ____________________; the second stage of the Plasmodium life cycle, which infects red blood cells, is called the ____________________.
 73.
Plantlike protists produce ____________________, which allows most forms of life to live on Earth.
 74.
____________________ are related to green algae and are thought to have evolved from them.
 75.
Funguslike protists resemble fungi in that they reproduce with ____________________ and they ____________________ nutrients from their environment.
 76.
Cellular slime molds usually exist as single-celled amoebas, but they form ____________________ and release ____________________ when food or water is scarce.
 77.
A water mold caused the great potato famine in ____________________ in 1846.
 78.
The empty shells of diatoms are used as ____________________ in cleaning agents.
 79.
Red algae produce carrageenan, which is used in the food industry to ____________________ foods such as ice cream and salad dressings.

 
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Sponges & Cnidarians Study Guide

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Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 1.

mc001-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which organism is most closely related to a jellyfish?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 2.
Which of the following distinguishes sponges from other invertebrates?
a.
 They are not motile in any stage of their life cycle.
b.
 They obtain nutrients by diffusion rather than by ingestion.
c.
 Their cells are not organized into tissues.
d.
 They reproduce only asexually.
 3.
Sponges
a.
 are nonsymmetrical.
b.
 lack organization into tissues and organs.
c.
 possess cells that are capable of recognizing other sponge cells.
d.
 All of the above
 4.
Collar cells
a.
 are specialized for reproduction.
b.
 draw water into the body of a sponge.
c.
 produce cytochrome oxidase.
d.
 are parasitic protozoa.
 5.
Spicules are
a.
 flexible protein fibers.
b.
 hard spike-like structures in the wall of a sponge.
c.
 similar to seeds; a complete sponge can grow from each spicule.
d.
 used for taking in food and water.
 6.
Adult sponges
a.
 have body walls with many pores.
b.
 possess true tissues.
c.
 are active swimmers.
d.
 use stinging cells to capture prey.
 7.
Skeletal support in sponges may be provided by
a.
 spicules of calcium carbonate.
b.
 spicules of silicon dioxide.
c.
 fibers called spongin.
d.
 All of the above
 8.
Sponges obtain food
a.
 through photosynthesis.
b.
 by using their spicules to paralyze protozoa.
c.
 by filtering small organisms from the water.
d.
 with their spongin.
 9.
In sponges, currents that draw water through the organism are created by
a.
 amoebocytes.
c.
 gemmules.
b.
 collar cells.
d.
 spicules.
 10.
The cells that move throughout the sponge’s body wall to deliver food to the organism’s cells are called
a.
 amoebocytes.
c.
 gemmules.
b.
 choanocytes.
d.
 spicules.
 11.
Water leaves the interior of a sponge through the
a.
 food vacuoles.
c.
 body wall.
b.
 spicules.
d.
 osculum.
 12.
collar cell : water ::
a.
 amoebocyte : nutrients and wastes
b.
 spongin : food
c.
 spicule : water
d.
 osculum : mesenchyme
 13.
The gemmules of sponges
a.
 create water currents for feeding.
b.
 are equivalent to the sperm cells of higher animals.
c.
 are equivalent to the egg cells of higher animals.
d.
 are necessary for one form of asexual reproduction.
 14.
Hermaphroditic organisms
a.
 reproduce only by asexual means.
b.
 produce both eggs and sperm.
c.
 have gemmules that are fertilized by amoebocytes.
d.
 possess only male amoebocytes.
 15.
Hermaphrodism is advantageous in sponges because
a.
 they reproduce asexually.
b.
 they have gemmules.
c.
 they are sessile.
d.
 None of the above is true; hermaphrodism does not occur in sponges.
 16.
Sponges can reproduce
a.
 by the budding of new sponges from the parent.
b.
 by a breakup of the original parent into fragments that each become a new sponge.
c.
 sexually, using sperm and eggs.
d.
 All of the above
 17.
some freshwater sponges : gemmules ::
a.
 hermaphrodites : eggs and sperm
b.
 gemmules : eggs
c.
 gemmules : sperms
d.
 amoebocytes : eggs
 18.

mc018-1.jpg

Refer to the illustration above. Which organism captures its prey using nematocysts?

a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 4
 19.
Many cnidarians have two distinct life stages,
a.
 the gametophyte and the sporophyte.
b.
 the polyp and the medusa.
c.
 the egg and the adult.
d.
 the egg and the larva.
 20.
Nematocysts
a.
 contain harpoonlike structures called cnidocytes.
b.
 create water currents in sponges.
c.
 can spear a cnidarian’s prey.
d.
 are found in most predatory ctenophores.
 21.
The cnidarian’s inner layer of tissue is specialized for
a.
 digestion.
c.
 capturing prey.
b.
 reproduction.
d.
 All of the above
 22.
The outer cell layer of a cnidarian is the
a.
 ectoderm.
c.
 endoderm.
b.
 mesoglea.
d.
 epidermis.
 23.
Which of the following is a characteristic associated only with cnidarians?
a.
 a digestive tract with a single opening
b.
 cnidocytes specialized for defense and capturing prey
c.
 choanocytes containing nematocysts
d.
 a parasitic life cycle
 24.
sponges : fewer than three body layers ::
a.
 ctenophores : no body symmetry
b.
 sponges : bilateral symmetry
c.
 cnidarians : nerve net
d.
 cnidarians : choanocytes
 25.
The phylum Cnidaria includes all of the following except
a.
 jellyfish.
c.
 sea anemones.
b.
 squids.
d.
 corals.
 26.
Planula larvae of scyphozoans
a.
 result from fertilization of eggs by sperm.
b.
 swim freely through the water.
c.
 settle to the ocean bottom and grow into polyps.
d.
 All of the above
 27.
The hydra is unique among the hydrozoans because it
a.
 is an active swimmer.
b.
 lives in colonies.
c.
 is strictly a marine species.
d.
 has no medusa stage.
 28.
Which of the following is not sessile as an adult?
a.
 sponge
b.
 coral
c.
 sea anemone
d.
 Portuguese man-of-war
 29.
Sea anemones are
a.
 medusae.
c.
 larvae.
b.
 polyps.
d.
 eggs.

The diagram below illustrates the life cycle of the jellyfish.

nar001-1.jpg
 30.
Refer to the illustration above. Which stage is called a planula?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 None of the above
 31.
Refer to the illustration above. Which stage reproduces asexually?
a.
 1
c.
 3
b.
 2
d.
 None of the above
 32.
Anthozoans include
a.
 jellyfish.
b.
 hydras.
c.
 the Portuguese man-of-war.
d.
 sea anemones and corals.
 33.
Scyphozoans, such as jellyfish, spend most of their lives as
a.
 polyps.
c.
 corals.
b.
 medusae.
d.
 parasites.
 34.
The class of cnidarians that typically live only as polyps is the
a.
 Anthozoa.
c.
 Scyphozoa.
b.
 Hydrozoa.
d.
 None of the above
 35.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of ctenophores?
a.
 bioluminescence
b.
 movement by means of beating cilia
c.
 use of cnidocytes to capture prey
d.
 hermaphrodism
 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 36.
____________________ is drawn into a sponge through pores and leaves through the osculum.
 37.
A network of tough, flexible protein fibers called ____________________ provides support in some sponges.
 38.
Spike-like objects that make up the skeleton of some sponges are called ____________________.
 39.
A sponge’s ____________________ may be composed of either calcium carbonate or silicon dioxide.
 40.
Food molecules are carried throughout a sponge’s body by ____________________.
 41.
Food-filled balls of amoebocytes that are involved in asexual reproduction in sponges are called ____________________.
 42.
An organism that produces both eggs and sperm is called a(n) ____________________.
 43.
A free-floating, gelatinous body form of a cnidarian is called a(n) ____________________, while an attached body form is called a(n) ____________________.
 44.
Cnidarians have two cell layers, the epidermis and the ____________________.
 45.
A coral is a member of the class ____________________.
 46.
Ctenophores are the largest organisms that move by the beating of ____________________.

 
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Quiz Cell Reproduction

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Cell Reproduction

 

 

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
1.
The information needed by a cell to direct its activities and to determine its characteristics is contained in molecules of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
2.
Gametes are diploid so that when fertilization occurs, the resulting zygote will have the characteristic number of chromosomes for that species.
3.
A karyotype is a type of gene.
4.
Cell division in bacteria and eukaryotes takes place in precisely the same manner.
5.
Cells spend most of their lifetime in interphase.
6.
After the replication of a cell’s chromatids, there are twice as many centromeres as there are chromosomes.
7.
Asexual reproduction occurs by mitosis.
8.
During telophase, a nuclear envelope surrounds each new set of chromosomes.
9.
Chromatids separate from each other during telophase.
10.
After mitosis and cytokinesis, each new cell has a complete set of the original cell’s  chromosomes.
 

Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
11.
Following replication of its DNA, each chromosome contains two ____________________, which are attached to each other by a centromere.
12.
Chromosomes that are not involved in sex determination are called ____________________.
13.
A picture of a cell’s chromosomes is called a ____________________.
14.
The sequence of events that occurs in a cell from one mitotic division to the next is called the ____________________.
15.
“Cables” made of microtubules that extend from the poles of a cell to the centromeres during cell division are called ____________________.
16.
In mitosis, anaphase follows ____________________.
17.
The stage of meiosis during which homologues line up along the equator of the cell is called ____________________.
18.
The process called ____________________ guarantees that the number of chromosomes in gametes is half the number of chromosomes in body cells.
19.
A reciprocal exchange of corresponding segments of DNA is called ____________________.
20.
As a result of spermatogenesis, ____________________ cells are produced that can all develop into sperm cells. As a result of oogenesis, only ____________________ cell(s) develop(s) into (an) egg cell(s).

 
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