Evolution & Phylogeny

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Evolution & Phylogeny


Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Which of the following ideas is not part of Darwin's concept of evolution?
a.
A population is capable of producing more offspring than the environment can support.
b.
Individuals that are best adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce.
c.
A struggle for existence exists among individuals of a population.
d.
Traits acquired during an individual's life are passed on to its offspring.
e.
Individuals in a population are genetically variable.
 

 2. 

Which of the following is not part of Darwin's mechanism of evolution?
a.
overproduction of offspring
b.
competition among organisms
c.
acquiring traits because they are needed
d.
differential reproductive success
e.
genetic variation among individuals
 

 3. 

According to Lamarck's hypothesis, giraffes have long necks:
a.
by acquiring them through natural selection.
b.
by inheriting mutations that resulted in long necks from their parents.
c.
by stretching during their lifetime and passing the trait to their offspring.
d.
because they were divinely created that way.
e.
by homoplastic inheritance.
 

 4. 

What evolutionary process is primarily responsible for the evolution of new species?
a.
coevolution
b.
convergent evolution
c.
punctuated equilibrium
d.
natural selection
e.
gradualism
 

 5. 

Who proposed that the Earth's geological features formed slowly over time, creating long periods for evolution?
a.
Charles Darwin
b.
Aristotle
c.
Lamarck
d.
Charles Lyell
e.
Erasmus Darwin
 

 6. 

Evolution is genetic change in a(an) ____________ that occurs over time.
a.
individual
b.
population
c.
community
d.
ecosystem
e.
biosphere
 

 7. 

_________________ penned an essay stating that populations have the capability to outgrow their food supply resulting in disease, famine, and competition.
a.
Erasmus Darwin
b.
Aristotle
c.
Thomas Malthus
d.
Lamarck
e.
Charles Darwin
 

 8. 

Which of the following does not contribute to limits on population growth?
a.
predation
b.
reproductive capacity
c.
availability of light
d.
disease organisms
e.
unfavorable weather
 

 9. 

Passing on traits or characteristics that were acquired during the lifetime of an organism to its offspring is a concept that is primarily attributed to:
a.
Alfred Wallace.
b.
Charles Darwin.
c.
Charles Lyell.
d.
Jean Baptiste de Lamarck.
e.
Thomas Malthus.
 

 10. 

The islands where Charles Darwin observed variation among organisms and compared them to those organisms found on the mainland were the:
a.
Channel Islands.
b.
Falkland Islands.
c.
Galapagos Islands.
d.
Canary Islands.
e.
Virgin Islands.
 

 11. 

On the Galapagos Islands, Charles Darwin questioned why:
a.
the island species resembled those species on other arid islands.
b.
the island species resembled those from nearby islands.
c.
the island should be inhabited at all since they were 600 miles from South America.
d.
the island species resembled those from South America.
e.
the islands species were not unique.
 

 12. 

Evolutionary modifications that improve the survival and reproductive success of an organism are called:
a.
mutations.
b.
vestigial structures.
c.
homoplastic traits.
d.
artificial traits.
e.
adaptations.
 

 13. 

The synthetic theory of evolution emphasizes:
a.
natural selection of individuals.
b.
population genetics.
c.
differential reproduction.
d.
overproduction of individuals.
e.
homologous versus vestigial structures.
 

 14. 

What process provides the genetic variability that natural selection acts on during evolution?
a.
adaptation
b.
artificial selection
c.
fitness
d.
mitosis
e.
mutation
 

 15. 

The differential distribution of wing length in Drosophila, with larger wings in northern areas and smaller wings in southern climates, provides evidence that:
a.
chance is the most important agent in evolutionary change.
b.
natural selection is the most important agent in evolutionary change.
c.
wing length is not a heritable trait.
d.
the fossil record is usually inaccurate.
e.
the molecular clock cannot be applied to fruit fly traits.
 

 16. 

Perhaps the most direct evidence for evolution comes from:
a.
biogeography.
b.
comparative anatomy.
c.
developmental biology.
d.
the fossil record.
e.
molecular biology.
 

 17. 

The most important finding from the fossil record for the theory of evolution is:
a.
that life has evolved through time.
b.
life has evolved gradually.
c.
most species are extinct.
d.
ancient species differed from those alive today.
e.
All of the above.
 

 18. 

Which of the following would be least likely to form a fossil?
a.
an animal with an exoskeleton
b.
an animal with an endoskeleton
c.
a marine organism
d.
an organism in the tropical rain forest
e.
an organism living in a lake
 

 19. 

Fossils can be dated by all of the following methods except:
a.
radioisotopes.
b.
index fossils.
c.
the relative position in rock strata.
d.
uranium-235.
e.
nitrogen-14.
 

 20. 

Paleontologists have pieced together from fossils the evolution of the whale from:
a.
aquatic reptiles.
b.
4 legged, land dwelling mammals.
c.
sharks.
d.
porpoises.
e.
extinct aquatic birds.
 

 21. 

Bird wings and insect wings are considered:
a.
homologous structures.
b.
homogenous structures.
c.
vestigial structures.
d.
divergent structures.
e.
homoplastic structures.
 

 22. 

Organs or parts of organs that are seemingly nonfunctional and degenerate, often undersized or lacking some essential part, are referred to as:
a.
fossilized organs.
b.
homoplastic organs.
c.
mutant organs.
d.
homologous organs.
e.
vestigial organs.
 
 
Figure 17-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar001-1.jpg

 

 23. 

Examining the plants in Figure 17-01, the structure labeled 2 is homologous with structure:
a.
1.
b.
3.
c.
4.
d.
5.
e.
7.
 

 24. 

Australia has distinctive organisms, such as egg-laying mammals and pouched mammals (marsupials), because they have:
a.
an unusual climate that has triggered natural selection.
b.
selective conditions that have been relaxed.
c.
been separated and isolated from other land masses for a long period of time.
d.
experienced a significantly slower rate of evolutionary change.
e.
fewer species of organisms than most continents.
 
 
Figure 17-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar002-1.jpg

 

 25. 

Based on Figure 17-02, the two present day continents that should have the most closely related plant and animal species are:
a.
North and South America.
b.
Africa and Australia.
c.
Africa and South America.
d.
Australia and India.
e.
Eurasia and India.
 

 26. 

The land mass labeled 1 in Figure 17-02 is called:
a.
Eurasia.
b.
Laurasia.
c.
Antarctica.
d.
Gondwana.
e.
Pangea.
 

 27. 

The land mass labeled 2 in Figure 17-02 is called:
a.
Eurasia.
b.
Laurasia.
c.
Antarctica.
d.
Gondwana.
e.
Pangea.
 

 28. 

The indigenous plants and animals of the Galapagos Islands and Cape Verde Islands:
a.
are the same species as those found on the nearby mainland.
b.
are the same species on the two islands, but are different from those on the mainland.
c.
are the same species on the two islands and on the mainland.
d.
are similar to one another, but quite different from either adjacent mainland.
e.
resemble the nearest mainland species, but have evolved into new species.
 

 29. 

The geographical distribution of organisms makes sense only in the context of:
a.
natural selection.
b.
plate tectonics.
c.
continental drift.
d.
evolution.
e.
None of the above.
 

 30. 

Which of the following early embryos would be the easiest to distinguish from the others?
a.
bird
b.
honey bee
c.
human
d.
snake
e.
catfish
 

 31. 

In development, evolution has tended to:
a.
build on what came before rather than starting from scratch.
b.
start developing different organisms from new starting embryos.
c.
quickly form different embryos from which to develop different organisms.
d.
efficiently form new developmental methods.
e.
None of the above.
 

 32. 

DNA sequencing data suggest that evolutionary changes are related to an accumulation of:
a.
changes in DNA nucleotide sequences.
b.
homologous structures.
c.
index fossils.
d.
vestigial organs.
e.
convergent structures.
 
 
Table 17-03
Use the table below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar003-1.jpg

 

 33. 

Based on the data in Table 17-03, which of the following primates has the most recent common ancestor with humans?
a.
rhesus monkey
b.
gibbon
c.
tarsier
d.
gorilla
e.
orangutan
 

 34. 

When it is said that the genetic code is universal, it means that all organisms share:
a.
the same genes.
b.
the same mitochondrial DNA.
c.
the same coding mechanism.
d.
the same ribosomal structure.
e.
the same nuclear composition.
 
 
Figure 17-04
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar004-1.jpg

 

 35. 

In Figure 17-04, the average weight of a female guppy in the experimental group was:
a.
70 g.
b.
80 mg.
c.
170 mg.
d.
180 g.
e.
190 mg.
 

 36. 

Bacteria evolve antibiotic resistance through all of the following mechanisms except:
a.
mutations.
b.
intense predation.
c.
acquiring new genes from viruses.
d.
acquiring new genes from plasmids.
e.
acquiring new genes from other bacteria that survive antibiotic treatments.
 

 37. 

The study of the genetic variability within a population and the forces that change allele frequencies is:
a.
variation ecology.
b.
evolutionary genetics.
c.
population genetics.
d.
cytogenetics.
e.
allele genetics.
 

 38. 

All of the alleles for all the loci present in a population is called the:
a.
population variation.
b.
evolutionary potential.
c.
population compilation.
d.
gene pool.
e.
allele collection.
 

 39. 

Because most species of animals are diploid, each individual possesses:
a.
one allele for each locus.
b.
two alleles for each locus.
c.
three or more alleles for each locus.
d.
a complete set of alleles found in each chromosome.
e.
a partial set of alleles found in each cell.
 
 
Figure 18-01
Use the table below to answer the corresponding questions.

Genotype
Number
DD
200
Dd
500
dd
300
 

 40. 

In Figure 18-01, the frequency of the Dd phenotype is:
a.
0.1.
b.
0.2.
c.
0.3.
d.
0.4.
e.
0.5.
 

 41. 

In Figure 18-01, if the expression of alleles in the preceding question is simple dominance (D) and recessive (d), then the frequency of the recessive phenotype is:
a.
0.
b.
0.1.
c.
0.2.
d.
0.3.
e.
0.5.
 

 42. 

In Figure 18-01, the frequency of the recessive allele, d, is:
a.
0.15.
b.
0.25.
c.
0.35.
d.
0.55.
e.
0.75.
 

 43. 

If a population of 1000 individuals has 160 aa genotypes, assuming simple dominance by the A allele, the phenotype frequency of the dominant phenotype is:
a.
0.08.
b.
0.16.
c.
0.42.
d.
0.84.
e.
1.
 

 44. 

If a population of 1000 individuals has 160 aa genotypes, 320 Aa genotypes and 520 AA genotypes, the allele frequency of the dominant allele (A) is:
a.
0.16
b.
0.42.
c.
0.52.
d.
0.68.
e.
0.89.
 

 45. 

What is the correct equation for the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
a.
p2 + 2pq2 + q2 + q2 = 100
b.
p2 + 2p + 2q + q2 = 1
c.
p2 – 2pq + q2 = 1
d.
2p2 + 2pq + 2q2 = 1000
e.
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
 

 46. 

In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the term q2 refers to the frequency of:
a.
the recessive allele at a given locus.
b.
the homozygous recessive genotype at a given locus.
c.
recessive alleles in a given population.
d.
heterozygotes in a population.
e.
None of the above.
 

 47. 

The Hardy-Weinberg principle is useful because:
a.
it explains the existence of variation in populations.
b.
it proves that Mendel was correct for populations.
c.
it describes most populations.
d.
it explains the existence of so many species.
e.
it identifies those factors that can change allele or genotype frequencies.
 

 48. 

Which of the following is not an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
a.
no net mutation
b.
large population size
c.
artificial selection
d.
random mating
e.
no gene flow
 

 49. 

The Hardy-Weinberg principle of genetic equilibrium tells us what to expect when a sexually reproducing population is:
a.
at genetic equilibrium.
b.
growing.
c.
migrating.
d.
evolving.
e.
mutating.
 

 50. 

In a certain population, the allele causing sickle cell anemia has an allele frequency of 0.2. If the population is in genetic equilibrium for this allele, what fraction of the population would be carriers for the allele?
a.
0.24
b.
0.32
c.
0.42
d.
0.48
e.
0.80
 

 51. 

Which of the following statements is not true about natural selection?
a.
Offspring of individuals that are better adapted will make up a larger proportion of the next generation.
b.
Natural selection directs evolution by preserving traits acquired during an individual's lifetime.
c.
Natural selection depends on the genetic variability in a population, which arises through mutations.
d.
Natural selection acts to preserve favorable traits and eliminate unfavorable traits.
e.
Natural selection leads to adaptive evolutionary change.
 

 52. 

Evolution that involves changes in allele frequencies over just a few successive generations is referred to as:
a.
natural selection.
b.
microevolution.
c.
macroevolution.
d.
stabilizing selection.
e.
directional selection.
 

 53. 

With inbreeding, one would expect to see an increase in _________________ within the population.
a.
genetic drift
b.
migration
c.
heterozygosity
d.
homozygosity
e.
assortative mating
 

 54. 

Which of the following is an example of nonrandom mating?
a.
self-fertilization
b.
heterozygote advantage
c.
genetic equilibrium
d.
directional selection
e.
genetic polymorphisms
 

 55. 

The ultimate source of all new alleles is:
a.
natural selection.
b.
genetic drift.
c.
gene flow.
d.
mutation.
e.
genetic polymorphism.
 

 56. 

A commonly cited example of genetic drift has occurred within:
a.
the cheetah population.
b.
the parasite that causes malaria.
c.
scale-eating fish.
d.
humans, with regard to birth weight.
e.
insects called water boatmen.
 

 57. 

Due to fluctuations in the environment, a population may periodically experience a rapid decrease in the number of individuals. When this occurs, genetic drift can occur in the few remaining survivors, a process referred to as:
a.
the founder effect.
b.
migration.
c.
a genetic bottleneck.
d.
gene flow.
e.
natural selection.
 

 58. 

Seriously abnormal phenotypes or harmful mutations are acted against or reduced to low frequencies by:
a.
beneficial mutations.
b.
gene flow.
c.
disruptive selection.
d.
genetic drift.
e.
natural selection.
 

 59. 

The only process that can lead to adaptations and directed genetic change of a population is:
a.
natural selection.
b.
mutation.
c.
migration.
d.
genetic drift.
e.
inbreeding.
 
 
Figure 18-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar006-1.jpg

 

 60. 

In Figure 18-02, the beetle phenotype in figure B with the highest probability of survival is labeled:
a.
1.
b.
2.
c.
3.
d.
4.
e.
There is no difference in survival for the beetles that are labeled.
 

 61. 

In Figure 18-02, the transition between figure A and figure B in the associated figure is characteristic of:
a.
extreme changes in the environment.
b.
genetic variation.
c.
disruptive selection.
d.
natural selection.
e.
All of the above.
 
 
Figure 18-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar007-1.jpg

 

 62. 

Based on the data in Figure 18-03, the infant with the highest probability of survival would weigh:
a.
11 lbs.
b.
9 lbs.
c.
7 lbs.
d.
5 lbs.
e.
3 lbs.
 

 63. 

The distribution of phenotypes for human birth weight is a good example of:
a.
the founder effect.
b.
genetic drift.
c.
directional selection.
d.
disruptive selection.
e.
stabilizing selection.
 
 
Figure 18-04
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar008-1.jpg

 

 64. 

Based on the data in Figure 18-04, the percentage of water boatmen consumed:
a.
demonstrates the selective advantage of the most camouflaged phenotype.
b.
demonstrates the selective advantage of the least camouflaged phenotype.
c.
results in a decrease in genetic variation.
d.
was highest for the most common phenotype.
e.
showed that no selection occurred.
 

 65. 

The phenomenon illustrated in Figure 18-04 is:
a.
directional selection.
b.
frequency-dependent selection.
c.
disruptive selection.
d.
the founder effect.
e.
balanced polymorphism.
 

 66. 

You might expect to see an example of the founder effect in:
a.
the Hawaiian Islands.
b.
Central Africa.
c.
states in the Mississippi River drainage.
d.
a tropical rain forest.
e.
China.
 

 67. 

Which of the following causes changes in allele frequencies?
a.
genetic drift
b.
mutation
c.
natural selection
d.
gene flow from migration
e.
All of the above.
 

 68. 

When traits are under ____________ control, a range of phenotypes results, showing a normal distribution, or bell-shaped curve.
a.
genotypic
b.
polygenic
c.
directional
d.
disruptive
e.
None of the above.
 

 69. 

The presence of two or more different alleles in a population for a given locus is termed:
a.
heterozygosity.
b.
genetic polymorphism.
c.
polygenic stasis.
d.
a gene pool.
e.
frequency independent selection.
 

 70. 

Balanced polymorphism can be maintained by the actions of:
a.
the founder effect and genetic drift.
b.
heterozygote advantage and genetic drift.
c.
heterozygote advantage and the founder effect.
d.
heterozygote advantage and frequency-dependent selection.
e.
frequency-dependent selection and the founder effect.
 

 71. 

Variation that does not alter the ability to survive and reproduce:
a.
is not possible with natural selection.
b.
reduces genetic polymorphism.
c.
is only possible for polygenic traits.
d.
is not part of the gene pool.
e.
is called neutral variation.
 

 72. 

With respect to the alleles for sickle cell anemia, which genotype(s) is (are) at a disadvantage to persons residing in tropical areas of Africa?
a.
homozygous recessive
b.
homozygous dominant
c.
heterozygous
d.
both heterozygous and homozygous dominant
e.
both homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive
 

 73. 

__________________________ is thought to be due to increased homozygosity.
a.
The founder effect
b.
Genetic drift
c.
Inbreeding depression
d.
Heterozygote advantage
e.
Gene flow
 

 74. 

Taxonomists tend to use the __________ to characterize species for classification.
a.
morphological species concept
b.
biological species concept
c.
evolutionary species concept
d.
ecological species principle
e.
genetic species principle
 

 75. 

Reproductive isolation mechanisms that prevent fertilization are termed:
a.
zygotic barriers.
b.
biological barriers.
c.
postzygotic barriers.
d.
ecological barriers
e.
prezygotic barriers.
 

 76. 

The prevention of genetic exchange between two species because they reproduce at different times of the day, season, or year is called:
a.
hybrid sterility.
b.
genetic isolation.
c.
sexual isolation.
d.
mechanical isolation.
e.
temporal isolation.
 

 77. 

Species whose ranges overlap, but do not interbreed because they are found in different environments or areas within the range, are said to exhibit ______________ between the two species.
a.
environmental isolation
b.
biological isolation
c.
evolutionary isolation
d.
habitat isolation
e.
temporal isolation
 

 78. 

If two species have incompatible mating structures, then _______________ exists between them to prevent genetic exchange.
a.
temporal isolation
b.
mechanical isolation
c.
gametic isolation
d.
sexual isolation
e.
postzygotic barriers
 

 79. 

Matings between two species that produce embryos that fail to develop are evidence of:
a.
hybrid sterility
b.
hybrid breakdown.
c.
hybrid inviability.
d.
ecological barriers
e.
pre-embryonic isolation.
 

 80. 

Mules are an example of:
a.
hybrid breakdown.
b.
hybrid inviability.
c.
hybrid sterility.
d.
macroevolution.
e.
microevolution.
 

 81. 

Hybrid sterility is common when:
a.
the gametes of an interspecific hybrid are abnormal.
b.
the two parental species have different chromosome numbers.
c.
chromosomal synapsis during meiosis cannot occur properly.
d.
chromosomal segregation during meiosis cannot occur properly.
e.
All of the above.
 

 82. 

Hybrid inviability and hybrid sterility are reproductive isolating mechanisms that are termed:
a.
homozygotic barriers.
b.
prezygotic barriers.
c.
heterozygotic barriers.
d.
postzygotic barriers.
e.
euzygotic barriers.
 

 83. 

Temporal isolation and mechanical isolation are reproductive isolating mechanisms that are classified as:
a.
homozygotic barriers.
b.
prezygotic barriers.
c.
heterozygotic barriers.
d.
postzygotic barriers.
e.
euzygotic barriers.
 

 84. 

Based on the data in the figure, a likely reason for speciation between these two sympatric species of frogs is:

mc084-1.jpg

a.
allopolyploidy.
b.
mechanical isolation.
c.
habitat isolation.
d.
temporal isolation.
e.
hybrid inviability.
 

 85. 

The geographic isolation of Kaibab squirrels from Abert squirrels appears to be leading to:
a.
sympatric speciation.
b.
hybridization.
c.
allopolyploidy.
d.
allopatric speciation.
e.
adaptive radiation.
 

 86. 

In ____________ speciation, a population forms a new species within the same geographical region as the original species.
a.
allopatric
b.
sympatric
c.
heterogeneous
d.
autologous
e.
parapatric
 

 87. 

An organism with multiple sets of chromosomes from different species is called a(n):
a.
gametopolyploid.
b.
heteropolypoloid.
c.
hybrid polyploid.
d.
autopolyploid.
e.
allopolyploid.
 

 88. 

Allopolyploidy is a significant factor in the evolution of:
a.
bacteria.
b.
animals.
c.
protozoa.
d.
fungi.
e.
flowering plants.
 

 89. 

Which of the following groups of organisms demonstrated a sudden appearance in the fossil record and continues to exhibit remarkable diversity today?
a.
ferns and mosses
b.
fungi
c.
algae
d.
flowering plants
e.
pines
 

 90. 

Polyploidy is much more common in:
a.
animals than in plants.
b.
plants than in animals.
c.
flies than in finches.
d.
humans than in plants.
e.
bacteria than in eukaryotes.
 

 91. 

Which of the following statements about allopolyploidy is false?
a.
It can result in a new, reproductively isolated species in just one generation.
b.
Many flowering plant species are allopolyploids.
c.
It accounts for a large portion of the remarkable species diversity observed on Earth today.
d.
The hybrid may have a combination of traits conferring greater fitness than the parent species.
e.
The hybrid may assume a new role in the environment and so coexist with the parent species.
 

 92. 

The mechanism of sympatric speciation has been verified in hemp nettles by:
a.
creating unique hybrids under laboratory conditions.
b.
producing hybrids that were 98% fertile under laboratory conditions.
c.
producing experimental hybrids that formed fertile offspring with the naturally occurring hybrid.
d.
producing experimental hybrids that could reproduce successfully with both parent species.
e.
creating hybrids that reproduced through the F4 generation before dying from hybrid inviability.
 

 93. 

The Hawthorne and apple maggot flies appear to have become reproductively isolated from each other largely because:
a.
they occur on different sides of the Mississippi River.
b.
they have different mating behaviors.
c.
they occupy different parts of the habitat.
d.
they have adapted to two different hosts.
e.
they mate at different times of the day.
 

 94. 

The sympatric speciation of Hawthorn and apple maggot flies:
a.
has occurred in part because the adult flies emerge at different times of the season.
b.
has been linked to allopolyploidy.
c.
has occurred as a result of mutation and speciation within the host species.
d.
has resulted in subtle, but distinctive changes in the physical appearance of the two flies.
e.
All of the above.
 

 95. 

Selection of mates based on appearance or some other characteristic is termed:
a.
zygotic choice.
b.
sexual selection.
c.
postzygotic selection.
d.
gametic preference.
e.
sexual orientation.
 
 
Figure 19-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar009-1.jpg

 

 96. 

The end result of the process in Figure 19-01 is:
a.
sympatric speciation.
b.
allopolyploidy.
c.
hybridization.
d.
rapid speciation.
e.
All of the above.
 

 97. 

The most common outcome of the process in Figure 19-01 is the left branch that follows step 3. This happens because of:
a.
a low rate of fertilization.
b.
defective meiosis.
c.
gametic isolation.
d.
species incompatibility.
e.
hybrid inviability.
 

 98. 

Variations in rates of growth for different parts of the body are referred to as:
a.
allometric growth patterns.
b.
adaptive growth patterns.
c.
allopatric growth patterns.
d.
allopolyploidy.
e.
preadaptations.
 

 99. 

What process refers to dramatic phenotypic changes that sometimes occur in evolution, such as the appearance of feathered wings during the evolution of birds?
a.
paedomorphosis
b.
gradualism
c.
macroevolution
d.
allopolyploidy
e.
microevolution
 

 100. 

Which model would predict the abrupt appearance of a new species in the fossil record, with little or no evidence of intermediate forms?
a.
anagenesis
b.
gradualism
c.
microevolution
d.
paedomorphosis
e.
punctuated equilibrium
 

 101. 

The model that maintains that populations diverge from one another by the slow accumulation of adaptive changes within each population is:
a.
punctuated equilibrium.
b.
paedomorphosis.
c.
hybridization.
d.
gradualism.
e.
allopolyploidy.
 

 102. 

Adaptive radiation is often accompanied by:
a.
migration to an island.
b.
a mass extinction.
c.
devastating volcanic eruption.
d.
climatic change.
e.
Any of the above.
 

 103. 

The evolution of many closely related species from one or a few ancestral species in a relatively short period of time is referred to as:
a.
allometric growth.
b.
preadaptations.
c.
adaptive radiation.
d.
microevolution.
e.
allopatric speciation.
 

 104. 

New ecological roles that were not previously exploited by an ancestral organism are referred to as:
a.
paedomorphosis.
b.
adaptive zones.
c.
punctuated equilibrium.
d.
adaptive radiation.
e.
sympatric speciation.
 

 105. 

The continuous, low-level extinction rate of species is referred to as:
a.
minimal extinction.
b.
mass extinction.
c.
background extinction.
d.
temporal extinction.
e.
selective extinction.
 

 106. 

If two populations diverge geographically and/or genetically from each other, and the process continues long enough, they may become two different:
a.
species.
b.
hybrids.
c.
polyploids.
d.
allopolyploids.
e.
euploids.
 

 107. 

What type of speciation is most common in animals?
a.
hybridization
b.
allopatric
c.
allopolyploidy
d.
sympatric
e.
paedomorphosis
 

 108. 

The area where two populations overlap and breeding occurs, even if biologists classify the populations to be of two species, is known as:
a.
a homozygous zone.
b.
a hybrid zone.
c.
an autologous zone.
d.
an adaptive zone.
e.
a primary zone.
 

 109. 

When larval or juvenile characteristics are retained in the adult stage, it is known as:
a.
paedomorphosis.
b.
allometry.
c.
adaptive radiation.
d.
stasis.
e.
pre-adaptation.
 

 110. 

It is hypothesized that the high diversity of rock-dwelling species within the cichlids is due to:
a.
allopolyploidy.
b.
poor water quality.
c.
polyploidy coloration.
d.
disruptive sexual selection.
e.
macroevolution.
 

 111. 

Multicellular eukaryotes arose about:
a.
3.8 billion years ago.
b.
2 billion years ago.
c.
1.3 billion years ago.
d.
630 million years ago.
e.
250 million years ago.
 

 112. 

Which of the following gases was not present in the Earth's early atmosphere, but appeared after the evolution of certain organisms?
a.
hydrogen
b.
methane
c.
nitrogen
d.
oxygen
e.
carbon dioxide
 

 113. 

Which of the following is not one of the requirements that must have existed for the chemical evolution of life on Earth to have occurred?
a.
a source of energy
b.
availability of chemical building blocks
c.
oxygen (O2)
d.
time
e.
None of the above.
 

 114. 

The approximate age of the Earth is:
a.
100,000 years.
b.
1.2 billion years.
c.
4.6 billion years.
d.
10.5 billion years.
e.
13.6 billion years.
 

 115. 

There is evidence that life existed at least about:
a.
3.8 billion years ago.
b.
2 billion years ago.
c.
1.3 billion years ago.
d.
630 million years ago.
e.
250 million years ago.
 

 116. 

A compound that could not have been present in the early atmosphere, because it is quite reactive and would have broken down organic molecules that were a necessary step in the origin of life on Earth is:
a.
oxygen.
b.
sulfur dioxide.
c.
hydrogen sulfide.
d.
carbon dioxide.
e.
sodium chloride.
 

 117. 

The Earth's early atmosphere was probably strongly:
a.
oxidizing.
b.
electronegative.
c.
reducing.
d.
ionic.
e.
acidic.
 

 118. 

High energy sources on early Earth, which were most likely involved in the origin of life, included:
a.
volcanic activity, lightning, and ultraviolet radiation.
b.
bombardment from meteorites, gamma radiation, and cosmic radiation.
c.
intense radiation, volcanic activity, and redox energy.
d.
oxidizing environment, electrical discharge, and geothermal energy.
e.
infrared radiation, ultraviolet radiation, and oxidizing radiation.
 

 119. 

The concept that simple organic molecules could form spontaneously from simpler raw materials was first proposed by:
a.
Miller and Urey.
b.
Charles Darwin.
c.
Thomas Malthus.
d.
Watson and Crick.
e.
Oparin and Haldane.
 

 120. 

The hypothesis that organic molecules formed near the Earth's surface in pools of water is called the:
a.
clay hypothesis.
b.
iron-sulfur world hypothesis.
c.
iron-clay hypothesis.
d.
organic broth hypothesis.
e.
prebiotic soup hypothesis.
 

 121. 

The hypothesis that organic molecules formed near deep sea hydrothermal vents is called the:
a.
iron-sulfur world hypothesis.
b.
iron-clay hypothesis.
c.
organic sea hypothesis.
d.
prebiotic soup hypothesis.
e.
sulfur vent hypothesis.
 

 122. 

Presently, it is thought that organic polymers may have formed and accumulated on:
a.
water and shells.
b.
sand and mud.
c.
silt and sand.
d.
rocks and clay.
e.
sand and heavy metals.
 

 123. 

Amino acids and other organic molecules were formed in the laboratory of Miller and Urey from the following:
a.
heat, electrical discharge, water, nitric oxide, and carbon dioxide.
b.
heat, ultraviolet radiation, water, carbon dioxide, and amines.
c.
heat, infrared radiation, water, carbon dioxide, and free nitrogen.
d.
hydrogen, methane, water, ammonia, and electrical discharge.
e.
ultraviolet radiation, electrical discharge, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, and ammonia.
 

 124. 

Assemblages of abiotically produced polymers are called:
a.
stomatolites.
b.
protobionts.
c.
polyribosomes.
d.
endosymbionts.
e.
ribozymes.
 

 125. 

Some protobionts have been shown to have the ability to:
a.
divide by binary fission.
b.
maintain a chemical environment different from their external environment.
c.
metabolize certain compounds.
d.
grow in size.
e.
All of the above.
 

 126. 

The results of the experiment represented in the accompanying figure and similar experiments include the formation of all of the following except:

mc126-1.jpg

a.
sugars.
b.
lipids.
c.
ATP.
d.
amino acids.
e.
None of the above, all were formed.
 

 127. 

Some of the earliest cells formed rocklike columns composed of many thin layers of prokaryotic cells, typically cyanobacteria. Fossils of these are referred to as:
a.
protobionts.
b.
anaerobes.
c.
stromatolites.
d.
microspheres.
e.
ribozymes.
 

 128. 

One of the most significant steps in the evolution of true cells from macromolecular assemblages was the evolution of:
a.
molecular reproduction.
b.
covalent bonding.
c.
hydrogen bonding.
d.
electronegativity.
e.
valence electrons.
 

 129. 

Macromolecules that are capable of self-replication are:
a.
proteins.
b.
polysaccharides.
c.
steroids.
d.
DNA and RNA.
e.
triglycerides.
 

 130. 

Experiments called in vitro evolution or directed evolution have shown that:
a.
RNA can evolve into DNA.
b.
RNA can evolve to catalyze a variety of reactions.
c.
RNA can evolve into protein enzymes.
d.
DNA can evolve the double helix structure.
e.
RNA can evolve to self replicate.
 

 131. 

The first enzymes were probably:
a.
protein reproducing enzymes.
b.
RNA degrading enzymes.
c.
DNA synthesis enzymes.
d.
ribozymes.
e.
RNA synthesis enzymes.
 

 132. 

The first cells were probably:
a.
autotrophic aerobes.
b.
heterotrophic aerobes.
c.
eukaryotic anaerobes.
d.
autotrophic anaerobes.
e.
heterotrophic anaerobes.
 

 133. 

In the process of splitting water during photosynthesis, the first cyanobacteria released:
a.
hydrogen gas.
b.
oxygen gas.
c.
photons of light.
d.
heat from longer wavelengths of light.
e.
electrons, protons, and neutrons.
 

 134. 

The earliest photosynthetic organisms arose about:
a.
3.8-4.6 billion years ago.
b.
3.1-3.5 billion years ago.
c.
1.3 billion years ago.
d.
630 million years ago.
e.
250 million years ago.
 

 135. 

Organisms whose metabolic processes are harmed by the presence of oxygen are called:
a.
obligate anaerobes.
b.
facultative anaerobes.
c.
facultative aerobes.
d.
heterotrophs.
e.
obligate aerobes.
 

 136. 

The first organisms to release oxygen by photosynthesis were the:
a.
gymnosperms.
b.
green sulfur bacteria.
c.
algae.
d.
flowering plants.
e.
cyanobacteria.
 

 137. 

The atmospheric gas that prevents the majority of the sun's ultraviolet radiation from penetrating to the Earth's surface is:
a.
methane.
b.
ammonia.
c.
oxygen.
d.
ozone.
e.
carbon dioxide.
 

 138. 

The theory that eukaryotic organelles originated as prokaryotes that survived ingestion by a host cell and ultimately evolved mutualistic relationships with the host cell is termed the:
a.
obligative symbiotic theory.
b.
heterosymbiont theory.
c.
endosymbiont theory.
d.
facultative symbiotic theory.
e.
autotrophic symbiotic theory.
 
 
Figure 20-01
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar010-1.jpg

 

 139. 

The theory illustrated in the Figure 20-01 is supported by which piece of additional evidence?
a.
The results of the Miller-Urey experiment
b.
Burgess shale fossils
c.
Ediacarian fossils
d.
The presence of DNA in some organelles
e.
All of the above.
 

 140. 

Not much physical evidence of life is available from rocks of the Precambrian, because these ancient rocks:
a.
have been greatly eroded in most areas.
b.
have been deeply buried in most areas.
c.
have been deposited in oceanic trenches deep in the oceans.
d.
occupy inaccessible areas of mountainous regions.
e.
occupy the polar regions, and thus are covered by glaciers.
 

 141. 

Precambrian rocks contain fossils of:
a.
only single celled organisms.
b.
great forests of flowering plants.
c.
the first insects.
d.
cells and simple organisms.
e.
primitive fish.
 

 142. 

One source of fossil organisms in Precambrian rock formations is:
a.
Yixian fossils.
b.
Ediacarian fossils.
c.
Burgess Shale fossils.
d.
Chenjiang fossils.
e.
index fossils.
 

 143. 

The time in the history of Earth when evolution was progressing at the most rapid rate, as evidenced by fossils such as those of the Burgess Shale, is the:
a.
Cambrian period.
b.
Ordovician period.
c.
Silurian period.
d.
Devonian period.
e.
Carboniferous period.
 

 144. 

The first fish:
a.
were small and jawless, but with bony armor.
b.
appeared about 2 billion years ago.
c.
were the lobe-finned fish.
d.
appeared in the Silurian period.
e.
developed in the Precambrian.
 

 145. 

Shallow seas covered much of the land during the:
a.
Silurian period.
b.
Precambrian.
c.
Ordovician period.
d.
Triassic period.
e.
Oligocene epoch.
 

 146. 

The "Age of Fishes" is an informal name for the:
a.
Ordovician period.
b.
Silurian period.
c.
Devonian period.
d.
Permian period.
e.
Carboniferous period.
 

 147. 

The first land animals were probably the:
a.
arthropods.
b.
amphibians.
c.
reptiles.
d.
mammals.
e.
dinosaurs.
 

 148. 

Dragonflies that ranged in size from those smaller than today's dragonflies to some with wingspans of 75 centimeters (2.5 feet) appeared during the:
a.
Cambrian period.
b.
Ordovician period.
c.
Silurian period.
d.
Devonian period.
e.
Carboniferous period.
 

 149. 

Great swamp forests covered the globe and formed the major coal deposits during the:
a.
Jurassic period.
b.
Eocene epoch.
c.
Carboniferous period.
d.
Precambrian.
e.
Ordovician period.
 

 150. 

Amphibians evolved directly from what ancestral organisms?
a.
reptiles
b.
shelled invertebrates
c.
fishes
d.
soft-bodied animals
e.
marine invertebrates
 

 151. 

Mammal-like reptiles arose during the:
a.
Carboniferous period.
b.
Cambrian period.
c.
Eocene epoch.
d.
Jurassic period.
e.
Cretaceous period.
 

 152. 

The greatest mass extinction of all time, which occurred at the end of the Permian period:
a.
affected plants living on land more than any other group.
b.
was spread out over several million years.
c.
resulted in the extinction of more than 90% of all existing marine species.
d.
only impacted a few geographic regions, although the impact in these regions was staggering.
e.
did not affect terrestrial species.
 
 
Figure 20-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar011-1.jpg

 

 153. 

The animal in Figure 20-02 represents:
a.
a mosasaur.
b.
an ichthyosaur.
c.
a pterosaur.
d.
a thecodont.
e.
a plesiosaur.
 

 154. 

Which of the following characteristics applies to the organism in Figure 20-02?
a.
herbivore
b.
lived during the Triassic period
c.
representative plesiosaur
d.
one of the smallest aquatic animals
e.
None of the above.
 

 155. 

The Mesozoic era is often called the age of:
a.
amphibians.
b.
fish.
c.
mammals.
d.
conifers.
e.
reptiles.
 

 156. 

The ornithischian dinosaurs:
a.
were carnivorous.
b.
had pelvic bones similar to birds.
c.
died out during the Jurassic period.
d.
were the ancestors of the crocodiles and snakes of today.
e.
were usually small dinosaurs.
 

 157. 

The earliest birds:
a.
appeared during the late Jurassic period.
b.
had teeth and long tails.
c.
probably glided from trees.
d.
had feathers.
e.
All of the above.
 

 158. 

The therapsids were the ancestral group from which the ____________ evolved.
a.
fish
b.
amphibians
c.
reptiles
d.
mammals
e.
birds
 

 159. 

The Cenozoic is often called the age of the:
a.
insects.
b.
mammals
c.
flowering plants.
d.
birds.
e.
All of the above.
 

 160. 

During the Pleistocene epoch, plant communities changed dynamically in response to:
a.
a meteor impact.
b.
intense grazing pressure.
c.
competition with gymnosperms.
d.
iridium in the soil.
e.
fluctuating climates (ice ages).
 

 161. 

During the __________ epoch, the mammals experienced an explosive adaptive radiation.
a.
Holocene
b.
Paleocene
c.
Pleistocene
d.
Eocene
e.
Pliocene
 

 162. 

During the Oligocene epoch, specializations in mammals that are suggestive of a more open type of habitat included:
a.
longer legs.
b.
larger body size.
c.
specialized teeth.
d.
larger relative brain size.
e.
All of the above.
 

 163. 

Humans depend on other organisms to provide all of the following except:
a.
soil.
b.
declining biodiversity.
c.
pharmaceuticals.
d.
a balance of CO2 and O2 in the atmosphere.
e.
recycling of nutrients.
 

 164. 

The binomial system of nomenclature is a product of the work of:
a.
Charles Darwin.
b.
Carolus Linnaeus.
c.
Gregor Mendel.
d.
Paul Hebert.
e.
Ernst Haeckel.
 

 165. 

Which classification level would contain the greatest number of species?
a.
class
b.
division or phylum
c.
domain
d.
family
e.
order
 

 166. 

Which classification level would be the least inclusive?
a.
genus
b.
family
c.
phylum
d.
order
e.
class
 

 167. 

How would the scientific name of the yellow perch, Perca flavescens, be abbreviated?
a.
Perca f.
b.
Perca Fl.
c.
P. flavescens
d.
Perc. fl.
e.
P. flav.
 

 168. 

The classification scheme of Linnaeus was originally based on ________, but has now been altered to reflect ___________.
a.
similarities; structural differences
b.
biodiversity; structural similarity
c.
evolutionary history; structural similarity
d.
similarities; evolutionary history
e.
differences; similarities
 

 169. 

Which of the following is a taxon?
a.
class
b.
family
c.
phylum
d.
species
e.
All of the above.
 

 170. 

Some biologists are considering adopting a different classification scheme based on common ancestors, called:
a.
BioDiversity.
b.
the biological BarCode.
c.
the phylogical guide.
d.
the molecular blueprint.
e.
PhyloCode.
 

 171. 

Which of the following is the taxon that can be most clearly defined in biological terms?
a.
class
b.
species
c.
strain
d.
subspecies
e.
variety
 

 172. 

The classification level of domain is immediately "above" (more inclusive than) the level of:
a.
a class.
b.
a genus.
c.
a kingdom.
d.
a phylum.
e.
a species.
 

 173. 

The first kingdom recognized beyond Plantae and Animalia was:
a.
Archae.
b.
Protista.
c.
Eubacteria.
d.
Archaebacteria.
e.
Fungi.
 
 
Table 22-01
Use the table below to answer the corresponding questions.

Plantae Terrestrial, multicellular, photosymthetic organisms
Anthophyta Vascular plants with flowers, fruits, and seeds
Monocotyledones Monocots. Flowering plants with one seed leaf (cotyledon) and flower parts in threes
Commelinales Monocots with reduced flower parts, elongated leaves, and dry 1-seeded fruits
Poaceae Grasses with hollow stems; fruit, a graph; and abundant endosperm in seed
Zea Tall annual grass with separate female and male flowers
mays Only one species in genus – corn
 

 174. 

Using Table 22-01, all of the following characteristics are used to establish the family level of classification for corn except:
a.
grasses with hollow stems.
b.
fruit is a grain.
c.
large endosperm in the seed.
d.
one seed leaf.
e.
None of the above, all are used to define the family level of classification for corn.
 

 175. 

Based on the information in Table 22-01, one characteristic used at the class level of classification for corn is:
a.
flower parts in fours or fives.
b.
separate male and female flowers.
c.
the presence of a single seed leaf.
d.
flowering vascular plants.
e.
tall annual grasses.
 
 
Figure 22-02
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar013-1.jpg

 

 176. 

The animals in Figure 22-02 are all representative of the:
a.
Class Carnivora.
b.
Order Carnivora.
c.
Phylum Animalia.
d.
Class Chordata.
e.
Order Mammalia.
 

 177. 

If a gene were transferred naturally by a bacterium from a plant genome to a insect genome it would be an example of:
a.
transposon activity.
b.
genome shuffling.
c.
lateral gene transfer.
d.
genome switching.
e.
restriction.
 

 178. 

Bacteria are found in the Kingdom:
a.
Eubacteria.
b.
Fungi.
c.
Protista.
d.
Animalia.
e.
Plantae.
 

 179. 

Which Kingdom contains the protozoa, water and slime molds, and algae?
a.
Prokaryotae
b.
Fungi
c.
Protista
d.
Animalia
e.
Plantae
 

 180. 

Which of the following does not describe members of the Kingdom Fungi?
a.
absorb nutrients produced by other organisms
b.
possess cell walls
c.
not photosynthetic
d.
cells lack a nucleus
e.
yeasts and mushrooms
 

 181. 

Molecular evidence indicating less than 50% shared genes was the basis for:
a.
dividing the prokaryotes into two kingdoms, the Eubacteria and the Archaebacteria.
b.
separating the kingdom Protista from the kingdom Animalia.
c.
including algae and slime molds in the kingdom Protista.
d.
the separation of eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
e.
placing fungi in a separate kingdom.
 

 182. 

An example of homologous structures is the wing of a bat and:
a.
the arm of a human.
b.
the wing of a beetle.
c.
the tail of a whale.
d.
the leg of a chimpanzee.
e.
the dorsal fin of a shark.
 

 183. 

An example of homoplastic structures is the wing of a butterfly and:
a.
the wing of a moth.
b.
the wing of a bird.
c.
the antenna of the butterfly.
d.
the legs of the butterfly.
e.
the antenna of a moth.
 

 184. 

Humans, as well as other mammals ranging from mice to elephants, have hair. Hair, then, would be considered to be:
a.
a derived character.
b.
an ancestral character.
c.
a cladistic character.
d.
an analogous character.
e.
a polyphyletic character.
 

 185. 

Homoplastic structures are a result of ________________ evolution.
a.
convergent
b.
divergent
c.
the absence of
d.
multiphyletic
e.
derived
 

 186. 

A(an) __________________ character is a trait that has evolved relatively recently.
a.
derived
b.
ancestral
c.
cladistic
d.
homologous
e.
polyphyletic
 

 187. 

Shared ancestral characters may also be called:
a.
heteroplastic characters.
b.
synapomorphic characters.
c.
pleisomorphic characters.
d.
outgroups.
e.
phenetic characters.
 

 188. 

Scientists may compare similarities between nucleotide sequences of organisms to determine their evolutionary history. This is known as:
a.
synapomorphy.
b.
molecular systematics.
c.
monophyletic grouping.
d.
cladistics.
e.
phenetics.
 

 189. 

Comparison of the nucleotide sequences of a region of the genomes from the human, gorilla, and chimpanzee revealed that:
a.
humans are most closely related to the chimpanzee.
b.
the common ancestor of the gorilla, chimpanzee, and human diverged into 3 lines.
c.
the chimpanzee is more closely related to the gorilla than the human.
d.
the gorilla and chimpanzee have virtually identical sequences.
e.
None of the above.
 

 190. 

Shared homologous structures would indicate that two taxa are:
a.
polyphyletic.
b.
monophyletic.
c.
outgroups.
d.
in different clades.
e.
homoplastic.
 

 191. 

All of the taxa in a monophyletic group can be called a:
a.
division.
b.
class.
c.
clade.
d.
phyla.
e.
derivative.
 

 192. 

If a biologist classifies organisms based on enumeration of similarities between taxa, the ____________ system is being used.
a.
cladistic
b.
phenetic
c.
phyletic
d.
classical
e.
monophyletic
 

 193. 

The phenetic system is based primarily on:
a.
known evolutionary relationships.
b.
fossil evidence.
c.
the number of shared characteristics.
d.
the number of ancestral characteristics.
e.
both ancestral and shared characteristics.
 

 194. 

A cladist would attempt to classify organisms into ____________ taxa.
a.
paraphyletic
b.
polyphyletic
c.
derived
d.
phenotypic
e.
monophyletic
 

 195. 

Phylogenetic systematics produces branching diagrams called:
a.
phylogenic trees.
b.
cladistic trees.
c.
phenograms.
d.
molecular clocks.
e.
cladograms.
 

 196. 

Classical evolutionary taxonomy includes:
a.
some characteristics of both cladistics and phenetics.
b.
only monophyletic groups.
c.
only polyphyletic groups.
d.
only derived characters.
e.
only ancestral characters.
 

 197. 

The scientist credited with developing the modern system of classification used today is:
a.
St. Augustine.
b.
Aristotle.
c.
Cavalier-Smith.
d.
Woese.
e.
Linnaeus.
 
 
Figure 22-03
Use the figure below to answer the corresponding questions.

nar014-1.jpg

 

 198. 

The organism labeled B in Figure 22-03 is a common ancestor to:
a.
organism 2.
b.
organism 3.
c.
organism 5.
d.
organism 6.
e.
All of the above.
 

 199. 

In Figure 22-03, the pair of organisms that have the most recent ancestor is:
a.
2 and 4.
b.
6 and 4.
c.
4 and 5.
d.
2 and 3.
e.
1 and 2.
 

 200. 

In Figure 22-03, the taxon labeled II is:
a.
monophyletic.
b.
paraphyletic.
c.
polyphyletic.
d.
a clade.
e.
an outgroup.
 

Short Answer
 

 201. 

Identify and briefly explain the four premises of evolution by natural selection, as proposed by Charles Darwin.

 

 202. 

Compare and contrast the following terms: homology and homoplasy. Provide two examples for each.

 

 203. 

Provide a brief explanation of the relationship between amino acid sequences in proteins and nucleotide sequences in DNA and their evolutionary relationships.

 

 204. 

Differentiate between genotype, phenotype, and allele frequencies.

 

 205. 

List the five conditions that must be met in order to satisfy the predictions of the Hardy-Weinberg principle.

 

 206. 

Discuss how two of the following alter allele frequencies in populations: nonrandom mating, genetic drift, gene flow, and natural selection.

 

 207. 

Define paedomorphosis and allometric growth, and briefly explain how each contributes to the process of macroevolution.

 

 208. 

Briefly explain the iron-sulfur world hypothesis and identify two pieces of evidence that support this hypothesis.

 

 209. 

Place the following organisms in order of appearance in the fossil record, beginning with the earliest.

A. ferns, algae, flowering plants, gymnosperms
B. amphibians, reptiles, fish, mammals

 

 210. 

Contrast the following terms: monophyletic, paraphyletic, and polyphyletic. Provide one example for each.

 

Essay
 

 211. 

Explain this statement: "There is bias in the fossil record."

 

 212. 

What part of Darwin's theory was incomplete due to a lack of knowledge at the time of publication? How does the synthetic theory of evolution explain this?

 

 213. 

How do fossils provide evidence of evolution? How are scientists able to determine the age of fossils?

 

 214. 

Explain why mutations are almost always neutral or harmful.

 

 215. 

Bacterial populations have been exposed to an antibiotic and have developed resistance to the antibiotic over time. Would this be an example of stabilizing selection, directional selection, or disruptive selection? Explain your reasoning.

 

 216. 

Describe the theory of continental drift, and how it relates to biological evolution.

 

 217. 

If a population of allopolyploids were to evolve in an area, what are possible outcomes for this new species?

 

 218. 

Provide at least two types of evidence that support the endosymbiont theory.

 

 219. 

Describe the distinguishing organisms and major biological events associated with the following geological time units.

A. Precambrian time
B. Paleozoic era
C. Mesozoic era
D. Cenozoic era

 

 220. 

Describe the biological basis of the species taxon. If there were not humans on earth to classify organisms, would species still exist?

 


 
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