Unit 10A Chapters 40-43 Systems

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Unit 10A Chapters 40-43 Systems


Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

How do animal structures well suited to specific functions come about?
a.
Natural selection favors the most functional structures for a particular environment.
b.
Mutations arise to provide required structures for survival in a particular environment.
c.
An animal that needs a new function will develop a new structure to provide it.
d.
Animals invent structural designs that enhance their functions.
e.
Animals continually improve their structures in order to improve their functions.
 

 2. 

Which represent adaptations to the same environmental challenge?
a.
gastrovascular activity, two-layered body, and torpedo shape
b.
large volume, long tubular body, wings
c.
external respiratory surface, small size, two-layered body
d.
complex internal structures, small size, large surface area
e.
branched internal surfaces, small size, moist outer covering
 

 3. 

Why do sharks, penguins, and aquatic mammals have the same fusiform body shape?
a.
Natural selection shapes similar adaptations when diverse organisms face the same environmental challenge.
b.
Respiration through gills is enhanced by having a fusiform shape.
c.
The laws of hydrodynamics constrain the shapes that are possible for aquatic animals that swim very fast.
d.
A and C only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 4. 

Which of the following ideas is not consistent with our understanding of animal structure?
a.
The environment imposes similar problems on all animals.
b.
The evolution of structure in an animal is influenced by its environment.
c.
All but the simplest animals demonstrate the same hierarchical levels of organization.
d.
Different animals contain fundamentally different categories of tissues.
e.
Short-term adjustments to environmental changes are mediated by physiological organ systems.
 

 5. 

Regardless of their size, the one thing that is common to all animals is
a.
an external body surface that is dry.
b.
a basic body plan that resembles a two-layered sac.
c.
the use of homeostatic mechanisms to control their internal environment.
d.
the use of positive and negative feedback cycles to regulate body water content.
e.
having cells surrounded by an aqueous medium.
 

 6. 

Which of the following is a problem faced by animals as they increase in size?
a.
decreasing surface-to-volume ratio
b.
reproducing in aqueous environments
c.
the tendency for larger bodies to be more variable in metabolic rate
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 7. 

An increase in which of the following parameters is most important in the evolution of specialized exchange surfaces such as the linings of the lungs or intestines?
a.
surface area
b.
body thickness
c.
number of cell layers
d.
metabolic rate of component cells
e.
volume of component cells
 

 8. 

What is the common functional significance of the extended number of cells making up such seemingly different human structures as the lining of the air sacs in the lungs and the wavy lining of the intestine?
a.
increased oxygen demand from their metabolic activity
b.
increased exchange surface provided by their membranes
c.
greater numbers of cell organelles contained within their cytoplasm
d.
greater protection due to increased cellular mass
e.
lowered basal metabolic rate due to cooperation between cells
 

 9. 

Which of the following is true of interstitial fluid?
a.
It forms the extracellular matrix of connective tissue.
b.
It is the internal environment found in animal cells.
c.
It is composed of blood.
d.
It provides for the exchange of materials between blood and body cells.
e.
It is found inside the small intestine.
 

 10. 

Why must multicellular organisms keep their cells awash in an "internal pond"?
a.
Negative feedback will only operate in interstitial fluids.
b.
Cells need an aqueous medium for the exchange of nutrients, gases, and wastes.
c.
Cells of multicellular organisms tend to lose water because of osmosis.
d.
Cells of multicellular organisms tend to accumulate wastes, a consequence of diffusion.
e.
This phenomenon occurs only in aquatic organisms because terrestrial organisms have adapted to life in dry environments.
 

 11. 

Cells are to tissues as tissues are to
a.
organs.
b.
membranes.
c.
organ systems.
d.
organelles.
e.
organisms.
 

 12. 

In a typical multicellular animal, the circulatory system interacts with various specialized surfaces in order to exchange materials with the exterior environment. Which of the following is not an example of such an exchange surface?
a.
lung
b.
muscle
c.
skin
d.
intestine
e.
kidney
 

 13. 

The epithelium best adapted for a body surface subject to abrasion is
a.
simple squamous.
b.
simple cuboidal.
c.
simple columnar.
d.
stratified columnar.
e.
stratified squamous.
 

 14. 

Which of the following tissues lines the kidney tubules?
a.
connective
b.
smooth muscle
c.
nervous
d.
epithelial
e.
adipose
 

 15. 

Collagenous fibers are primarily found in what type of animal tissue?
a.
connective
b.
striated muscle
c.
nerve
d.
epithelial
e.
bone
 

 16. 

What is stratified cuboidal epithelium composed of?
a.
several layers of box-like cells
b.
a hierarchical arrangement of flat cells
c.
a tight layer of square cells attached to a basement membrane
d.
an irregularly arranged layer of pillar-like cells
e.
a layer of ciliated, mucus-secreting cells
 

 17. 

Which statement best links the group of tissues known as connective tissue? A connective tissue will have
a.
an extracellular matrix containing fibers.
b.
a supporting material such as chondroitin sulfate.
c.
an epithelial origin.
d.
relatively few cells and a large amount of extracellular matrix.
e.
both A and B
 

 18. 

Which of the following fibers are responsible for the resistant property of tendons?
a.
elastin fibers
b.
fibrin fibers
c.
collagenous fibers
d.
reticular fibers
e.
spindle fibers
 

 19. 

What do fibroblasts secrete?
a.
fats
b.
chondroitin sulfate
c.
interstitial fluids
d.
calcium phosphate for bone
e.
proteins for connective fibers
 

 20. 

What joins muscles to bones?
a.
ligaments
b.
tendons
c.
loose connective tissue
d.
Haversian systems
e.
spindle fibers
 

 21. 

Cartilage is an example of which of the following types of tissue?
a.
connective
b.
reproductive
c.
nervous
d.
epithelial
e.
adipose
 

 22. 

What holds bones together at joints?
a.
cartilage
b.
Haversian systems
c.
loose connective tissue
d.
tendons
e.
ligaments
 
 
Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar001-1.jpg

 

 23. 

Which of the following numbers represents a tissue rich in fat?
a.
1
b.
5
c.
6
d.
9
e.
13
 

 24. 

Which of the following numbers represents chondrocytes?
a.
3
b.
4
c.
8
d.
10
e.
12
 

 25. 

Which of the following numbers represents the location of osteocytes?
a.
2
b.
3
c.
8
d.
10
e.
12
 

 26. 

Matrices of connective tissue include all of the following except
a.
chondroitin sulfate of cartilage.
b.
actin and myosin of muscle.
c.
plasma of blood.
d.
hydroxyapatite of bone.
e.
more than one of the above
 

 27. 

Which of the following traits is characteristic of all types of muscle tissue?
a.
intercalated discs that allow cells to communicate
b.
striated banding pattern seen under the microscope
c.
cells that lengthen when appropriately stimulated
d.
a response that can be consciously controlled
e.
cells that contain actin and myosin
 

 28. 

Which of the following describes skeletal muscle?
a.
smooth and involuntary
b.
smooth and unbranched
c.
striated and voluntary
d.
smooth and voluntary
e.
striated and branched
 

 29. 

Which of the following describes cardiac muscle?
a.
striated and branched
b.
striated and unbranched
c.
smooth and voluntary
d.
striated and voluntary
e.
smooth and involuntary
 

 30. 

What type of muscle tissue is associated with internal organs, other than the heart?
a.
skeletal
b.
cardiac
c.
striated
d.
intercalated
e.
smooth
 

 31. 

Which type of muscle is responsible for moving food along the digestive tract?
a.
cardiac
b.
smooth
c.
voluntary
d.
striated
e.
skeletal
 

 32. 

Which of the following layers of the stomach is best described as being composed primarily of epithelial tissue?
a.
mucosa
b.
submucosa
c.
muscularis
d.
serosa
e.
lumen
 

 33. 

An extended low-fat diet will have the most significant effect on which of the following?
a.
muscle mass
b.
glucose utilization
c.
basal metabolic rate (BMR)
d.
standard metabolic rate (SMR)
e.
energy reserves
 

 34. 

The least reliable indicator of an animal's metabolic rate would be the amount of
a.
ATP produced within its cells.
b.
heat it generates.
c.
oxygen it inspires.
d.
carbon dioxide it expires.
e.
water it drinks.
 

 35. 

The most significant single factor in preventing you from being able to run for a full 24 hours without stopping is the
a.
changes in blood pressure that accompany extended periods of exercise.
b.
circadian rhythm of the sleep-wake cycle.
c.
basal metabolic rate exceeding the amount of ATP available.
d.
lack of sustainable levels of cellular respiration.
e.
type of muscle fibers.
 

 36. 

Which common event most closely resembles negative feedback?
a.
The water shuts off when the float rises in the tank of a toilet.
b.
The chlorine level of a swimming pool decreases when the chlorinator is turned off.
c.
The flame size on a gas stove changes when the gas is turned off.
d.
There is a continual buildup of moisture in a basement with a dehumidifier running.
e.
There is a decrease in water pressure when the faucet is slowly turned off.
 

 37. 

Which example best describes a homeostatic control system?
a.
The core body temperature of a runner is allowed to gradually rise from 37°C to 45°C.
b.
The kidneys excrete salt into the urine when dietary salt levels rise.
c.
A blood cell shrinks when placed in a solution of salt and water.
d.
The blood pressure increases in response to an increase in blood volume.
e.
Motility in the digestive tract increases following a meal.
 

 38. 

Which of the following is an example of positive feedback?
a.
An increase in blood sugar concentration increases the amount of the hormone that stores sugar as glycogen.
b.
A decrease in blood sugar concentration increases the amount of the hormone that converts glycogen to glucose.
c.
An infant's suckling at the mother's breast increases the amount of the hormone that induces the release of milk from the mammary glands.
d.
An increase in calcium concentration increases the amount of the hormone that stores calcium in bone.
e.
A decrease in calcium concentration increases the amount of the hormone that releases calcium from bone.
 

 39. 

How does positive feedback differ from negative feedback?
a.
Positive feedback benefits the organism, whereas negative feedback is detrimental.
b.
In positive feedback, the effector's response is in the same direction as the initiating stimulus rather than opposite to it.
c.
In positive feedback, the effector increases some parameter (such as temperature), whereas in negative feedback it decreases.
d.
Positive feedback systems have effectors, whereas negative feedback systems utilize receptors.
e.
Positive feedback systems have control centers that are lacking in negative feedback systems.
 

 40. 

Consider a husband and wife sharing a bed, with each one having an electric blanket. Their controls become switched. When the husband feels cold, he turns up the control. This warms up his spouse, who turns down her control. This chills the husband, who turns up his control even more. The process continues. For both the wife and the husband, this would be an example of
a.
negative feedback.
b.
positive feedback.
c.
homeostasis.
d.
regulated change.
e.
integrated control.
 

 41. 

Consider an ectotherm and an endotherm of equal body size. The ectotherm is more likely to survive an extended period of food deprivation than the endotherm because
a.
the ectotherm is sustained by a higher basal metabolic rate.
b.
the ectotherm will expend less energy/kg body weight than the endotherm.
c.
the ectotherm will invest little to no energy in temperature regulation.
d.
actually, assuming equal size, the ectotherm and the endotherm will have the same energy expenditures.
e.
both B and C
 

 42. 

Terrestrial animals mainly exchange heat with the environment by all of the following physical processes except
a.
conduction.
b.
convection.
c.
evaporation.
d.
illumination.
e.
radiation.
 

 43. 

Of the mechanisms by which organisms exchange heat with their surroundings, which one results only in loss of heat from the organism?
a.
conduction
b.
convection
c.
radiation
d.
evaporation
e.
metabolism
 

 44. 

Which of the following is true about the activity levels of a snake?
a.
A snake is less active in winter because the food supply is decreased.
b.
A snake is less active in winter because it does not need to avoid predators.
c.
A snake is more active in summer because that is the period for mating.
d.
A snake is more active in summer because it can gain body heat by conduction.
e.
A snake is more active in summer as a result of being disturbed by other animals.
 

 45. 

Which organism is ectothermic and has little behavioral ability to adjust its body temperature?
a.
lizard
b.
sea star
c.
bluefin tuna
d.
hummingbird
e.
winter moth
 

 46. 

All of the following are mechanisms of thermoregulation in terrestrial mammals except
a.
changing the rate of evaporative heat loss.
b.
changing the rate of metabolic heat production.
c.
changing the rate of heat exchange by conforming to environmental temperatures.
d.
changing the rate of heat loss by vasodilation and vasoconstriction.
e.
relocating to cool areas when too hot, or to warm areas when too cold.
 

 47. 

Which of the following assertions about regulation of body temperature is true?
a.
Most animals are endotherms.
b.
Endothermy involves production of heat through metabolism.
c.
Ectothermic animals are cold-blooded.
d.
Mammals are always ectothermic.
e.
Insects are always ectothermic.
 

 48. 

Most terrestrial animals dissipate excess heat by
a.
countercurrent exchange.
b.
acclimation.
c.
vasoconstriction.
d.
hibernation.
e.
evaporation.
 

 49. 

Which of the following organisms controls its body temperature by behavior only?
a.
green frog
b.
penguin
c.
bluefin tuna
d.
house sparrow
e.
gray wolf
 

 50. 

Most amphibians and land-dwelling invertebrates have what in common?
a.
They are ectothermic organisms.
b.
They use behavioral adaptations to maintain body temperature.
c.
When on land, most have a net loss of heat across a moist body surface.
d.
When in water, they are mainly thermoconformers.
e.
Invertebrates have nothing in common with amphibians when it comes to regulating body temperatures.
 

 51. 

Where is the thermostat of vertebrates located?
a.
medulla oblongata
b.
thyroid gland
c.
hypothalamus
d.
subcutaneous layer of the skin
e.
liver
 

 52. 

Which of the following is not an aspect of temperature acclimation?
a.
The increase in production of certain enzymes by cells.
b.
Cells may produce enzymes with different temperature optima.
c.
Organisms may adjust some of the mechanisms that control internal temperature.
d.
The proportion of saturated and unsaturated fats may change in cell membranes.
e.
Allowing denaturation of proteins that cannot withstand extreme temperature.
 
 
Match the terms below to the following questions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all

A. ectothermy
B. endothermy
C. evaporation
D. torpor
E. thermogenesis
 

 53. 

estivation
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 54. 

absorption of heat from the surroundings
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 55. 

process that occurs in the brown fat of some mammals
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 56. 

panting in dogs
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 57. 

fur and feathers
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 
 
Use the figure below to answer the following questions

nar003-1.jpg
 

 58. 

What does the difference in temperature between arteries and veins in the goose's legs indicate?
a.
The legs need to be kept cool so that muscles will function well.
b.
The feet need to be kept very warm so they do not freeze in water.
c.
Heat loss is proportional to the difference in temperature inside and outside, so minimizing the difference means the goose will lose less heat.
d.
Arterial blood helps return heat to the core of the goose.
e.
Warm venous blood is necessary to keep the goose's feet from freezing.
 

 59. 

The temperature difference between arterial blood and venous blood near the goose's body
a.
is minimized by countercurrent exchange.
b.
is maximized because the blood has run through very cold feet.
c.
is minimized by dilation of the capillaries in the feet of the goose, allowing heat to be lost.
d.
is more than the difference between the venous blood near the body and the venous blood at the feet.
e.
allows the goose to lose maximum heat to the environment.
 

 60. 

An animal that migrates great distances would obtain the greatest benefit from storing its energy as
a.
proteins.
b.
minerals.
c.
carbohydrates.
d.
amino acids.
e.
fats.
 

 61. 

Which one of the following statements about obesity is false?
a.
The majority of the people in the United States are either obese or overweight.
b.
Obesity contributes to diabetes, cancer of the colon and breasts, and cardiovascular disease.
c.
Inheritance is a major factor in obesity.
d.
As adipose tissue increases, leptin blood levels rise.
e.
If a person's excess calories were stored as carbohydrates instead of fat, that person would weigh less.
 

 62. 

Some nutrients are considered "essential" in the diets of certain animals because
a.
only those animals use the nutrients.
b.
they are subunits of important polymers.
c.
they cannot be manufactured by the organism.
d.
they are necessary coenzymes.
e.
only some foods contain them.
 

 63. 

Which of the following is not one of the four classes of essential nutrients?
a.
essential sugars
b.
essential amino acids
c.
essential fatty acids
d.
essential vitamins
e.
essential minerals
 

 64. 

Animals require certain basic amino acids in their diet. An amino acid that is referred to as nonessential would be best described as one that
a.
can be made by the animal's body from other substances.
b.
is not used by the animal in biosynthesis.
c.
must be ingested in the diet.
d.
is less important than an essential amino acid.
e.
is not found in many proteins.
 

 65. 

Which of the following vitamins is incorrectly associated with its use?
a.
vitamin C—synthesis of connective tissue
b.
vitamin A—incorporated into the visual pigment of the eye
c.
vitamin D—calcium absorption and bone formation
d.
vitamin E—protection of membrane phospholipids from oxidation
e.
vitamin K—production of red blood cells
 

 66. 

Because they accumulate in the body, excess ingestion of which of the following can have toxic effects?
a.
fat-soluble vitamins
b.
water-soluble vitamins
c.
calcium and phosphorus
d.
proteins
e.
sugars
 

 67. 

Which of the following minerals is incorrectly associated with its use in animals?
a.
calcium—construction and maintenance of bone
b.
magnesium—cofactor in enzymes that split ATP
c.
iron—regulation of metabolic rate
d.
phosphorus—ingredient of nucleic acids
e.
sodium—important in nerve function
 

 68. 

Which of the following terms could be applied to any organism with a digestive system?
a.
heterotroph
b.
autotroph
c.
herbivore
d.
omnivore
e.
chemoautotroph
 

 69. 

During the process of digestion, fats are broken down when fatty acids are detached from glycerol. In addition, proteins are digested to yield amino acids. What do these two processes have in common? Both
a.
are catalyzed by the same enzyme.
b.
occur intracellularly in most organisms.
c.
involve the addition of a water molecule to break bonds (hydrolysis).
d.
require the presence of hydrochloric acid to lower the pH.
e.
require ATP as an energy source.
 

 70. 

Which of the following digestive processes requires enzymes?
a.
ingestion
b.
peristalsis
c.
absorption
d.
hydrolysis
e.
elimination
 

 71. 

To leave the digestive tract, a substance must cross a cell membrane. During which stage of food processing does this take place?
a.
ingestion
b.
digestion
c.
hydrolysis
d.
absorption
e.
elimination
 

 72. 

Intracellular digestion is usually immediately preceded by which process?
a.
hydrolysis
b.
endocytosis
c.
absorption
d.
elimination
e.
secretion
 

 73. 

Increasing the surface area facilitates which of the following digestive processes?
a.
hydrolysis
b.
absorption
c.
elimination
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 74. 

Which of the following is an advantage of a complete digestive system over a gastrovascular cavity?
a.
Extracellular digestion is not needed.
b.
Specialized regions are possible.
c.
Digestive enzymes can be more specific.
d.
Extensive branching is possible.
e.
Intracellular digestion is easier.
 

 75. 

Which one of the following has a shape most like an animal with a gastrovascular cavity?
a.
a drinking straw
b.
a baseball bat
c.
a garden hose
d.
an umbrella
e.
a vase
 

 76. 

Which of the following statements about the mammalian digestive system is true?
a.
All foods begin their enzymatic digestion in the mouth.
b.
After leaving the oral cavity, the bolus enters the larynx.
c.
The epiglottis prevents food from entering the trachea.
d.
Enzyme production continues in the esophagus.
e.
The trachea leads to the esophagus and then to the stomach.
 

 77. 

What part(s) of the digestive system have secretions with a pH of 2?
a.
small intestine
b.
stomach
c.
pancreas
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 78. 

Without functioning parietal cells, an individual would
a.
not be able to initiate protein digestion in the stomach.
b.
not be able to initiate mechanical digestion in the stomach.
c.
only be able to digest fat in the stomach.
d.
not be able to produce pepsinogen.
e.
not be able to initiate digestion in the small intestine.
 

 79. 

Most nutrients are absorbed across the epithelium of the
a.
colon.
b.
stomach.
c.
esophagus.
d.
small intestine.
e.
large intestine.
 

 80. 

A structure that does not manufacture any digestive substances is the
a.
duodenum.
b.
pancreas.
c.
salivary gland.
d.
gallbladder.
e.
liver.
 

 81. 

Which of the following statement(s) about bile salts is (are) true? Bile salts
a.
are enzymes.
b.
are manufactured by the pancreas.
c.
emulsify fats in the duodenum.
d.
increase the efficiency of pepsin action.
e.
are normally an ingredient of gastric juice.
 

 82. 

Most nutrients absorbed into the lymph or bloodstream are in which form?
a.
disaccharides
b.
polymers
c.
monomers
d.
enzymes
e.
peptides
 

 83. 

Which of the following enzymes has the lowest pH optimum?
a.
amylase
b.
pepsin
c.
lipase
d.
trypsin
e.
sucrase
 
 
The following questions refer to the digestive system structures in the figure below.

nar004-1.jpg

 

 84. 

Where are the agents that help emulsify fat produced?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
8
e.
9
 

 85. 

Where does the digestion of fats occur?
a.
3 only
b.
4 only
c.
1 and 4
d.
3 and 4
e.
1, 3, and 4
 

 86. 

Which structure is home to bacteria that produce vitamins as by-products of their metabolism?
a.
3
b.
4
c.
5
d.
7
e.
8
 

 87. 

Which of the following is not a nutritional monomer that can be transported in the blood?
a.
sucrose
b.
glucose
c.
fatty acid
d.
amino acid
e.
nucleotide
 

 88. 

In which blood vessel is glucose concentration likely to vary the most?
a.
abdominal artery
b.
coronary arteries
c.
pulmonary veins
d.
hepatic portal vessel
e.
hepatic vein, which drains the liver
 

 89. 

In humans, about 7 liters of fluid are secreted each day into the intestinal tract. Which of the following does not secrete fluid?
a.
salivary glands
b.
stomach
c.
liver
d.
pancreas
e.
large intestine
 

 90. 

Adult lampreys attach onto large fish and feed regularly on their body fluids. Given this continuous supply of food, which one of the following is most likely missing in lampreys?
a.
liver
b.
pancreas
c.
intestine
d.
stomach
e.
gallbladder
 

 91. 

Which portion of the digestive tract is most like a hallway in a school building, connecting one classroom to another?
a.
stomach
b.
esophagus
c.
small intestine
d.
liver
e.
pancreas
 

 92. 

Which of the following would probably contribute to constipation? A substance that
a.
contains plenty of fiber.
b.
promotes water reabsorption in the large intestine.
c.
speeds up movement of material in the large intestine.
d.
decreases water reabsorption in the large intestine.
e.
stimulates peristalsis.
 

 93. 

In general, herbivorous mammals have molars modified for
a.
cutting.
b.
ripping.
c.
grinding.
d.
splitting.
e.
piercing.
 

 94. 

In which group of animals would you expect to find a relatively long cecum?
a.
carnivores
b.
herbivores
c.
autotrophs
d.
heterotrophs
e.
omnivores
 

 95. 

All of the following are adaptations to an herbivorous diet except
a.
broad, flat molars.
b.
a rumen.
c.
ingestion of feces.
d.
bile salts.
e.
amylase.
 

 96. 

Why are cattle able to survive on a diet consisting almost entirely of plant material?
a.
They are autotrophic.
b.
Cattle, like the rabbit, reingests its feces.
c.
They manufacture all 15 amino acids out of sugars in the liver.
d.
Cattle saliva has enzymes capable of digesting cellulose.
e.
They have cellulose-digesting, symbiotic microorganisms in chambers of their stomachs.
 

 97. 

What would be expected if the amount of interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary beds of the lungs were to increase significantly?
a.
The amount of carbon dioxide entering the lungs from the blood would increase.
b.
The amount of oxygen entering the circulation from the lungs would increase.
c.
The amount of oxygen entering the circulation from the lungs would decrease.
d.
The pressure would cause the capillary beds to burst.
e.
Both C and D would be expected.
 

 98. 

Which is a correct statement concerning the insect circulatory system?
a.
The circulating fluid bathes tissues directly.
b.
Blood is always contained in a system of tubes called tracheae.
c.
Blood transports oxygen and nutrients to all the tissues.
d.
There is no heart, or pump.
e.
There is no blood, or circulating fluid.
 

 99. 

Organisms in which a circulating body fluid is distinct from the fluid that directly surrounds the body's cells are likely to have
a.
an open circulatory system.
b.
a closed circulatory system.
c.
a gastrovascular cavity.
d.
branched tracheae.
e.
hemolymph.
 

 100. 

Which of the following blood components would interfere with the functioning of an open circulatory system but not a closed one?
a.
electrolytes
b.
water
c.
red blood cells
d.
amino acids
e.
antibodies
 

 101. 

In which animal does blood flow from the pulmocutaneous circulation to the heart before circulating through the rest of the body?
a.
annelid
b.
mollusc
c.
fish
d.
frog
e.
insect
 

 102. 

Three-chambered hearts generally consist of which of the following numbers of atria and ventricles?
a.
one atrium; one ventricle
b.
two atria; one ventricle
c.
three atria; no ventricles
d.
no atria; three ventricles
e.
one atrium; two ventricles
 

 103. 

Which of the following are the only vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without first returning to the heart?
a.
amphibians
b.
birds
c.
fishes
d.
mammals
e.
reptiles
 

 104. 

To adjust blood pressure independently in the capillaries of the gas-exchange surface and in the capillaries of the general body circulation, an organism would need a(n)
a.
open circulatory system.
b.
hemocoel.
c.
lymphatic system.
d.
two-chambered heart.
e.
four-chambered heart.
 

 105. 

Through how many capillary beds must a human red blood cell travel if it takes the shortest possible route from the right ventricle to the right atrium?
a.
one
b.
two
c.
three
d.
four
e.
five
 
 
Refer to the diagram of the human heart in the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar005-1.jpg

 

 106. 

Chambers or vessels that carry oxygenated blood include which of the following?
a.
1 and 2 only
b.
3 and 4 only
c.
5 and 6 only
d.
1, 2, and 4
e.
3, 5, and 6
 

 107. 

Blood is carried directly to the lungs from which of the following?
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
5
e.
6
 

 108. 

What is the correct sequence of blood flow, beginning at the pulmonary artery?
a.
2-1-4-systemic circulation-3-5-6
b.
3-5-6-systemic circulation-2-1-4
c.
4-5-6-3-systemic circulation-2-1
d.
4-systemic circulation-2-1-6-3-5
e.
5-6-3-2-1-4
 

 109. 

In order for an insect to grow as large as an elephant, what changes or modifications would need to be made in the circulatory systems of insects?
a.
The circulating body fluid would need to be contained in closed vessels.
b.
The heart would need to have multiple chambers.
c.
The heart would need to have multiple ostia.
d.
Only A and B are correct.
e.
A, B, and C are correct.
 

 110. 

Damage to the sinoatrial node in humans
a.
is a major contributor to heart attacks.
b.
would block conductance between the bundle branches and the Purkinje fibers.
c.
would have a negative effect on peripheral resistance.
d.
would disrupt the rate and timing of cardia muscle contractions.
e.
would have an effect on blood pressure monitors in the aorta.
 

 111. 

A nonfunctional sinoatrial node would
a.
have no adverse effects on heart contraction.
b.
cause the heart to stop beating in an autorhythmic fashion.
c.
result in a block in ventricular contractions.
d.
cause no effects because hormones will take over regulation of the heart beat.
e.
have no significant effect on stroke volume.
 

 112. 

Why is the velocity of blood flow the lowest in capillaries?
a.
The capillary walls are not thin enough to allow oxygen to exchange with the cells.
b.
Capillaries are far from the heart, and blood flow slows as distance from the heart increases.
c.
The diastolic blood pressure is too low to deliver blood to the capillaries at a high flow rate.
d.
The systemic capillaries are supplied by the left ventricle, which has a lower cardiac output than the right ventricle.
e.
The total surface area of the capillaries is larger than the total surface area of the arterioles.
 

 113. 

Average blood pressure is lowest in which structure(s)?
a.
the aorta
b.
arteries
c.
arterioles
d.
capillaries
e.
venae cavae
 

 114. 

Which of the following is correct for a blood pressure reading of 130/80?

I. The systolic pressure is 130.
II. The diastolic pressure is 80.
III. The blood pressure during heart contraction is 80.
a.
I only
b.
III only
c.
I and II only
d.
II and III only
e.
I, II, and III
 

 115. 

What can be expected to happen to the blood pressure of a healthy individual during inhalation?
a.
The systolic pressure would rise and the diastolic pressure would decrease.
b.
The extra pressure exerted by the inflating lungs will increase blood pressure.
c.
There will be a transient decrease in blood pressure.
d.
Blood pressure will initially increase and then immediately decrease.
e.
Nothing will happen in healthy individuals.
 

 116. 

What is the reason that fluid is forced out of systemic capillaries at the arteriole end?
a.
The osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is greater than that of the blood.
b.
The hydrostatic pressure of the blood is less than that of the interstitial fluid.
c.
The hydrostatic pressure of the blood is greater than the osmotic pressure of the blood.
d.
The osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is greater than the hydrostatic pressure of the blood.
e.
The osmotic pressure of the blood is greater than the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid.
 

 117. 

If, during protein starvation, the osmotic pressure on the venous side of capillary beds drops below the hydrostatic pressure, then
a.
hemoglobin will not release oxygen.
b.
fluids will tend to accumulate in tissues.
c.
the pH of the interstitial fluids will increase.
d.
most carbon dioxide will be bound to hemoglobin and carried away from tissues.
e.
plasma proteins will escape through the endothelium of the capillaries.
 

 118. 

What would be the long-term effect if the lymphatic vessels associated with a capillary bed were to become blocked?
a.
More fluid would enter the venous capillaries.
b.
Blood pressure in the capillary bed would increase.
c.
Fluid would accumulate in interstitial areas.
d.
Fewer proteins would leak into the interstitial fluid from the blood.
e.
Nothing would happen.
 

 119. 

Human plasma proteins include which of the following?

I. fibrinogen
II. hemoglobin
III. immunoglobulin
a.
I only
b.
II only
c.
I and III only
d.
II and III only
e.
I, II, and III
 

 120. 

Which of the following is not a function of plasma proteins in humans?
a.
maintenance of blood osmotic pressure
b.
transport of water-insoluble lipids
c.
blood clotting
d.
immune responses
e.
oxygen transport
 
 
The following phrases refer to the five terms below. Each term can be used as an answer once, more than once, or not at all.

A. low-density lipoproteins
B. immunoglobulins
C. erythropoietin
D. epinephrine
E. platelets
 

 121. 

speeds up heart rate
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 122. 

part of the cellular elements of the blood
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 123. 

stimulates the production of red blood cells
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 124. 

involved in the early stages of blood clotting
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 
 
Match the following phrases to the conditions. Each condition may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. atherosclerosis
B. arteriosclerosis
C. hypertension
D. heart murmur
E. cardiovascular thrombus
 

 125. 

high blood pressure
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 126. 

defect in one or more of the valves of the heart
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 127. 

plaque formation by infiltration of lipids into arterial smooth muscles
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 128. 

Which of the following features do all gas exchange systems have in common?
a.
The exchange surfaces are moist.
b.
They are enclosed within ribs.
c.
They are maintained at a constant temperature.
d.
They are exposed to air.
e.
They are found only in animals.
 

 129. 

Tracheal systems for gas exchange are found in which organism?
a.
crustacean
b.
earthworm
c.
insect
d.
jellyfish
e.
vertebrate
 

 130. 

Where do air-breathing insects carry out gas exchange?
a.
in specialized external gills
b.
in specialized internal gills
c.
in the alveoli of their lungs
d.
across the membranes of cells
e.
across the thin cuticular exoskeleton
 

 131. 

An oil-water mixture is used as a spray against mosquitoes. How might this spray also affect gas exchange in other insects?
a.
The oil might coat their lungs.
b.
The oil might block the openings into the tracheal system.
c.
The oil might interfere with gas exchange across the capillaries.
d.
Only A and B are correct.
e.
A, B, and C are correct.
 

 132. 

If a molecule of CO2 released into the blood in your left toe travels out of your nose, it must pass through all of the following structures except the
a.
right atrium.
b.
pulmonary vein.
c.
alveolus.
d.
trachea.
e.
right ventricle.
 

 133. 

Which of the following occurs with the exhalation of air from human lungs?
a.
The volume of the thoracic cavity decreases.
b.
The residual volume of the lungs decreases.
c.
The diaphragm contracts.
d.
The epiglottis closes.
e.
The rib cage expands.
 

 134. 

Which of the following lung volumes would be different in a person at rest compared with when the person exercises?
a.
tidal volume
b.
vital capacity
c.
residual volume
d.
total lung capacity
e.
All of the above would be different.
 

 135. 

Tidal volume in respiration is analogous to what measurement in cardiac physiology?
a.
cardiac output
b.
heart rate
c.
stroke volume
d.
systolic pressure
e.
diastolic pressure
 

 136. 

A person with a tidal volume of 450 mL, a vital capacity of 4,000 mL, and a residual volume of 1,000 mL would have a potential total lung capacity of
a.
1,450 mL.
b.
4,000 mL.
c.
4,450 mL.
d.
5,000 mL.
e.
5,450 mL.
 

 137. 

Why is the respiratory system of a bird more efficient than the human respiratory system?
a.
The bird respiratory system does not mix exhaled air with inhaled air.
b.
A bird lung contains multiple alveoli, which increases the amount of surface area available for gas exchange.
c.
The human respiratory system ends in small parabronchi, which reduce the amount of surface area available for gas exchange.
d.
Only B and C are correct.
e.
A, B, and C are correct.
 

 138. 

The blood level of which gas is most important in controlling human respiration rate?
a.
nitric acid
b.
nitrogen
c.
oxygen
d.
carbon dioxide
e.
carbon monoxide
 

 139. 

Breathing is usually regulated by
a.
erythropoietin levels in the blood.
b.
the concentration of red blood cells.
c.
hemoglobin levels in the blood.
d.
CO2 and O2 concentration and pH-level sensors.
e.
the lungs and the larynx.
 

 140. 

At an atmospheric pressure of 870 mm Hg, what is the contribution of oxygen?
a.
100 mm Hg
b.
127 mm Hg
c.
151 mm Hg
d.
182 mm Hg
e.
219 mm Hg
 

 141. 

At the summit of a high mountain, the atmospheric pressure is 380 mm Hg. If the atmosphere is still composed of 21% oxygen, what is the partial pressure of oxygen at this altitude?
a.
0 mm Hg
b.
80 mm Hg
c.
160 mm Hg
d.
380 mm Hg
e.
760 mm Hg
 

 142. 

Which one of these statements about lungs is false?
a.
Gas exchange takes place across moist membranes.
b.
The gases move across the exchange membranes by diffusion.
c.
The total exchange surface area is relatively large.
d.
The lining of the alveoli is only one cell thick.
e.
The concentration of CO2 is higher in the air than in the alveolar capillaries.
 
 
Use the data shown below to answer the following questions.

Blood entering a capillary bed of a vertebrate was measured for the pressures exerted by various factors.

 
Arterial End of Capillary Bed
Verous End of Capillary Bed
Hydrostatic pressure
8 mm Hg
14 mm Hg
Osmotic pressure
26 mm Hg
26 mm Hg
100 mm Hg
42 mm Hg
40 mm Hg
46 mm Hg
 

 143. 

The site of this capillary bed could be all of the following except the
a.
pancreas.
b.
muscle tissue.
c.
medulla.
d.
alveoli.
e.
kidneys.
 

 144. 

Which of the following is false concerning the hemoglobin molecule?
a.
It contains amino acids.
b.
It contains iron.
c.
It is composed of four polypeptide chains.
d.
It can bind four O2 molecules.
e.
It is found in humans only.
 

 145. 

Which of the following is a characteristic of both hemoglobin and hemocyanin?
a.
found within blood cells
b.
red in color
c.
contains the element iron as an oxygen-binding component
d.
transports oxygen
e.
occurs in mammals
 

 146. 

The Bohr shift on the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is produced by changes in
a.
the partial pressure of oxygen.
b.
the partial pressure of carbon monoxide.
c.
hemoglobin concentration.
d.
temperature.
e.
pH.
 

 147. 

How is most of the carbon dioxide transported by the blood in humans?
a.
bicarbonate ions in the plasma
b.
CO2 attached to hemoglobin
c.
carbonic acid in the erythrocytes
d.
CO2 dissolved in the plasma
e.
bicarbonate attached to hemoglobin
 

 148. 

Hydrogen ions produced in human red blood cells are prevented from significantly lowering pH by combining with
a.
hemoglobin.
b.
plasma proteins.
c.
carbon dioxide.
d.
carbonic acid.
e.
plasma buffers.
 

 149. 

The innate immunity that protects a person digging in the garden from developing a microbial infection includes all of the following except
a.
lymphocytes.
b.
the skin.
c.
mucous membranes.
d.
acidic secretions.
e.
antimicrobial proteins.
 

 150. 

Physical barriers to invasion by other organisms
a.
include the skin and the mucous membranes.
b.
are difficult for bacteria and viruses to penetrate.
c.
may work in conjunction with secretions like tears, perspiration, and mucus.
d.
Only A and C are correct.
e.
A, B, and C are correct.
 

 151. 

Both the eye and the respiratory tract are protected against infections by which of the following?
a.
the mucous membranes that cover their surface
b.
the secretion of complement proteins
c.
the release of slightly acidic secretions
d.
the secretion of lysozyme onto their surface
e.
interferons produced by immune cells
 

 152. 

The lymphatic system involves which of the following organs?
a.
spleen and lymph nodes
b.
adenoids and tonsils
c.
appendix and special portions of the small intestine
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 153. 

Which statement about the complement system is true?
a.
These proteins are involved in innate immunity and not acquired immunity.
b.
These proteins are secreted by cytotoxic T cells.
c.
This group of proteins includes interferons.
d.
These proteins are one group of antimicrobial proteins.
e.
none of the above
 

 154. 

Which cell and signaling molecule are responsible for initiating an immune response?
a.
phagocytes: lysozyme
b.
phagocytes: chemokines
c.
dendritic cells: interferon
d.
mast cells: histamine
e.
lymphocytes: interferon
 

 155. 

Inflammatory responses may include all of the following except
a.
clotting proteins sealing off a localized area.
b.
increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area.
c.
reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma.
d.
release of substances to increase the blood supply to an inflamed area.
e.
increased release of white blood cells from bone marrow.
 

 156. 

A bacterium entering the body through a small cut in the skin will do which of the following?
a.
inactivate the hemocytes
b.
stimulate apoptosis of body cells
c.
stimulate release of interferons
d.
stimulate natural killer cell activity
e.
activate a group of proteins called complement
 

 157. 

What is the single most important event establishing a primary immune response?
a.
the presentation of viral protein complexed to class I MHC
b.
the lyses of virally infected cells by cytotoxic T cells
c.
the phagocytosis of microbes by antigen-presenting cells
d.
the recognition of self versus foreign
e.
apoptosis of virally infected cells
 

 158. 

What are antigens?
a.
proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump
b.
proteins embedded in B cell membranes
c.
proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains
d.
foreign molecules that trigger the generation of antibodies
e.
proteins released during an inflammatory response
 

 159. 

If a newborn were accidentally given a drug that destroyed the thymus, what would most likely happen?
a.
His cells would lack class I MHC molecules on their surface.
b.
His immune system would not function.
c.
Genetic rearrangement of antigen receptors would not occur.
d.
His T cells would not undergo the test of self-tolerance.
e.
His B cells would be reduced in number.
 

 160. 

The clonal selection theory is an explanation for how
a.
a single type of stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells.
b.
V gene and J gene segments are rearranged.
c.
an antigen can provoke development of very few cells to result in production of high levels of specific antibodies.
d.
HIV can disrupt the immune system.
e.
macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells.
 

 161. 

A person exposed to a new cold virus would not feel better for one to two weeks because
a.
specific B cells and T cells must be selected prior to a protective response.
b.
it takes up to two weeks to stimulate immunologic memory cells.
c.
phagocytic cells must first be activated by the complement system.
d.
antigen receptors are not the same.
e.
V-J gene rearrangement must occur prior to a response.
 
 
Use the graph in the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar009-1.jpg

 

 162. 

When would B cells produce effector cells?
a.
between 0 and 7 days
b.
between 7 and 14 days
c.
between 28 and 35 days
d.
both A and B
e.
both A and C
 

 163. 

When would memory cells be produced?
a.
between 0 and 7 days
b.
between 7 and 14 days
c.
between 28 and 35 days
d.
between 35 and 42 days
e.
both A and C
 

 164. 

When would you find antibodies being produced?
a.
between 3 and 7 days
b.
between 14 and 21 days
c.
between 28 and 35 days
d.
both B and C
e.
both A and C
 

 165. 

Which of the following cell types are responsible for initiating a secondary immune response?
a.
memory cells
b.
macrophages
c.
stem cells
d.
B cells
e.
T cells
 

 166. 

If a person's bone marrow were destroyed by radiation, which of the following cells could not be produced?
a.
B cells
b.
T cells
c.
erythrocytes
d.
neutrophils
e.
all of the above
 

 167. 

The MHC is important in
a.
distinguishing self from nonself.
b.
recognizing parasitic pathogens.
c.
identifying bacterial pathogens.
d.
identifying cancer cells.
e.
both A and D
 

 168. 

A patient can produce antibodies against some bacterial pathogens, but he does not produce antibodies against viral infections. This is probably due to a disorder in which cells of the immune system?
a.
B cells
b.
plasma cells
c.
natural killer cells
d.
T cells
e.
macrophages
 

 169. 

Which statement about antibodies is false?
a.
Antibodies are immunoglobulin proteins.
b.
Antibodies bind with foreign cells and lyse them.
c.
The structure of antibodies includes both a constant and a variable region.
d.
Antibodies act as signals to blood complement proteins or phagocytes.
e.
Plasma cells are responsible for the production of antibodies.
 
 
For the questions below, match the following answers with the phrase that best describes them.

A. cytotoxic T cells
B. natural killer cells
C. helper T cells
D. macrophages
E. B cells
 

 170. 

These cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and destroy virally infected cells.
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 171. 

These cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, and they respond to class I MHC molecule-antigen complexes.
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 172. 

Which of the following is (are) not involved in the activation and functioning of cytotoxic T cells?
a.
interleukins
b.
antigen-presenting cells
c.
class I MHC molecules
d.
T cell surface protein CD8
e.
perforin
 

 173. 

Which of the following is the last line of defense against an extracellular pathogen?
a.
lysozyme production
b.
phagocytosis by neutrophils
c.
antibody production by plasma cells
d.
histamine release by basophils
e.
lysis by natural killer cells
 

 174. 

Both lysozyme and cytotoxic T cells
a.
kill cells through chemical interactions.
b.
kill cells by inducing apoptosis.
c.
kill cells by generating a membrane attack complex.
d.
are part of innate immunity.
e.
are involved in cell-mediated immune responses.
 

 175. 

A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the helper T cell being unable to
a.
respond to T-independent antigens.
b.
lyse tumor cells.
c.
stimulate a cytotoxic T cell.
d.
interact with a class I MHC-antigen complex.
e.
interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex.
 

 176. 

CD4 and CD8 are proteins
a.
secreted by antigen-presenting cells.
b.
present on the surface of natural killer (NK) cells.
c.
that are T-independent antigens.
d.
that are present on the surface of T cells where they enhance cellular interaction.
e.
that are on the surface of antigen-presenting cells where they enhance B cell activity.
 

 177. 

Which cells will respond whether you have a viral infection or a bacterial infection?
a.
plasma cells
b.
helper T cells
c.
cytotoxic T cells
d.
only A and B
e.
A, B, and C
 

 178. 

B cells interacting with helper T cells are stimulated to differentiate when
a.
B cells produce IgE antibodies.
b.
B cells release cytokines.
c.
helper T cells present the class II MHC molecule-antigen complex on their surface.
d.
helper T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells.
e.
helper T cells release cytokines.
 

 179. 

Why can normal immune responses be described as polyclonal?
a.
Blood contains many different antibodies to many different antigens.
b.
Construction of a hybridoma requires multiple types of cells.
c.
Multiple immunoglobulins are produced from descendants of a single B cell.
d.
Diverse antibodies are produced for different epitopes of a specific antigen.
e.
Macrophages, T cells, and B cells all are involved in normal immune response.
 

 180. 

Which of the following types of cells is not involved in both antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity?
a.
pathogenic cells
b.
plasma cells
c.
helper T cells
d.
macrophages
e.
memory cells
 

 181. 

When antibodies attack antigens, clumping of the affected cells generally occurs. This is best explained by
a.
the shape of the antibody with at least two binding regions.
b.
disulfide bridges between the antigens.
c.
complement that makes the affected cells sticky.
d.
bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules.
e.
denaturation of the antibodies.
 

 182. 

Phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages is enhanced by
a.
the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes.
b.
antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes.
c.
the release of cytokines by activated B cells.
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 183. 

Which of the following statements about humoral immunity is correct?
a.
It primarily defends against fungi and protozoa.
b.
It is responsible for transplant tissue rejection.
c.
It protects the body against cells that become cancerous.
d.
It is mounted by lymphocytes that have matured in the bone marrow.
e.
It primarily defends against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells.
 

 184. 

What happens to people who receive flu vaccinations?
a.
They develop active immunity to the flu.
b.
They develop passive immunity to the flu.
c.
They have immunity to smallpox infection.
d.
They have an increased number of natural killer (NK) cells.
e.
They develop a hypersensitive humoral immune response.
 

 185. 

Naturally acquired passive immunity would involve the
a.
injection of vaccine.
b.
ingestion of interferon.
c.
placental transfer of antibodies.
d.
absorption of pathogens through mucous membranes.
e.
injection of antibodies.
 

 186. 

A major difference between active and passive immunity is that active immunity requires
a.
acquisition and activation of antibodies.
b.
proliferation of lymphocytes in bone marrow.
c.
transfer of antibodies from the mother across the placenta.
d.
direct exposure to a living or simulated pathogen.
e.
secretion of interleukins from macrophages.
 

 187. 

Jenner successfully used cowpox virus as a vaccine against the virus that causes smallpox. Why was he successful even though he used viruses of different kinds?
a.
The immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens.
b.
The cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox.
c.
Cowpox and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties.
d.
There are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses.
e.
All of the above are true.
 

 188. 

Which of the following would be most beneficial in treating an individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin?
a.
vaccination with a weakened form of the toxin
b.
injection of antibodies to the toxin
c.
injection of interleukin-1
d.
injection of interleukin-2
e.
injection of interferon
 

 189. 

What would be the major concern for an individual with type A blood who receives a transfusion of type B blood?
a.
the antibodies in the serum of the donor
b.
the antibodies in the serum of the recipient
c.
the anti-A antibodies produced by the donor
d.
the production of memory cells that will occur in the recipient
e.
antibodies in both the donor's and recipient's serum
 

 190. 

A transfusion of type A blood given to a person who has type O blood would result in which of the following?
a.
the recipient's B antigens reacting with the donated anti-B antibodies
b.
the recipient's anti-A antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells
c.
the recipient's anti-A and anti-O antibodies reacting with the donated red blood cells if the donor was a heterozygote (Ai) for blood type
d.
no reaction because type O is a universal donor
e.
no reaction because the O-type individual does not have antibodies
 
 
Use the data below to answer the following questions..

  Case 1 Case 2 Case 3
Mother
Fetus
 

 191. 

In which of the cases could the mother exhibit an anti-Rh-factor reaction to the developing fetus?
a.
case 1 only
b.
case 3 only
c.
cases 1 and 2 only
d.
cases 1, 2, and 3
e.
It cannot be determined from the data given.
 

 192. 

In which of the cases would the precaution likely be taken to give the mother anti-Rh antibodies before delivering her baby?
a.
case 1 only
b.
case 3 only
c.
cases 1 and 2 only
d.
cases 1, 2, and 3
e.
It cannot be determined from the data given.
 

 193. 

There is usually no concern if the mother's blood type is different from that of the developing fetus unless the Rh factor is involved. This is because
a.
the mother naturally develops a passive immunity to Rh unless she has had an Rh-positive child.
b.
fetal blood cells can cross the placenta.
c.
maternal blood cells can cross the placenta.
d.
maternal Rh antibodies can cross the placenta, whereas those against the ABO blood groups cannot.
e.
maternal Rh antibodies cannot cross the placenta, whereas those against the ABO blood groups can.
 

 194. 

In order to investigate the immune system of an invertebrate animal, a scientist grafts a section of epidermis from one earthworm to another. What might be the result of such an experiment?
a.
Invertebrates do not have immune responses, so the graft will be accepted.
b.
The graft will be recognized as nonself and rejected.
c.
This graft will be accepted, but a second graft would be rejected.
d.
The graft may recognize the host as foreign and react to it.
e.
Both B and D would happen.
 

 195. 

An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a bacterium because
a.
MHC molecules of the host may stimulate rejection of the graft tissue.
b.
the tissue graft, unlike the bacterium, is isolated from the circulation and will not enter into an immune response.
c.
a response to the graft will involve T cells and a response to the bacterium will not.
d.
a bacterium cannot escape the immune system by replicating inside normal body cells.
e.
the graft will stimulate an autoimmune response in the recipient.
 

 196. 

A patient reports severe symptoms of watery, itchy eyes and sneezing after being given a flower bouquet as a birthday gift. A reasonable initial treatment would involve the use of
a.
a vaccine.
b.
complement.
c.
sterile pollen.
d.
antihistamines.
e.
monoclonal antibodies.
 

 197. 

What aspect of the immune response would a patient who has a parasitic worm infection and another patient responding to an allergen such as ragweed pollen have in common?
a.
Both patients would have an increase in cytotoxic T cell number.
b.
Both patients would suffer from anaphylactic shock.
c.
Both patients would risk development of an autoimmune disease.
d.
Both patients would be suffering from a decreased level of innate immunity.
e.
Both patients would have increased levels of IgE.
 

 198. 

All of the following are usually considered disorders of the immune system except
a.
AIDS.
b.
SCID.
c.
lupus erythematosus.
d.
multiple sclerosis.
e.
MHC-induced transplant rejection.
 

 199. 

A person with AIDS would be unlikely to suffer from which of the following diseases?
a.
cancer
b.
rheumatoid arthritis
c.
hepatitis
d.
tuberculosis
e.
influenza
 

 200. 

Which choice could be used as an analogy to describe how HIV affects the body?
a.
bypassing a light switch so that electricity is constantly flowing to a light
b.
rebooting a computer after getting a program error message
c.
snipping the wires coming from a car battery so that no electricity flows to the car components
d.
an elevator stopping at the floor for which the button has been pushed
e.
changing the color of your house to match the color of your car
 


 
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