Unit 11 Ecology

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Unit 11 Ecology

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

"How does the foraging of animals on tree seeds affect the distribution and abundance of the trees?" This question

a.	is a valid ecological question.
b.	is difficult to answer because a large experimental area would be required.
c.	is difficult to answer because a long-term experiment would be required.
d.	A and B only
e.	A, B, and C are correct.

Which of the following levels of organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive?

a.	community, ecosystem, individual, population
b.	ecosystem, community, population, individual
c.	population, ecosystem, individual, community
d.	individual, population, community, ecosystem
e.	individual, community, population, ecosystem

Ecology as a discipline directly deals with all of the following levels of biological organization except

a.	population.
b.	cellular.
c.	organismal.
d.	ecosystem.
e.	community.

You are working for the Environmental Protection Agency and researching the effect of a potentially toxic chemical in drinking water. There is no documented scientific evidence showing that the chemical is toxic, but many suspect it to be a health hazard. Using the precautionary principle, what would be a reasonable environmental policy?

a.	Establish no regulations until there are conclusive scientific studies.
b.	Set the acceptable levels of the chemical conservatively low, and keep them there unless future studies show that they can be safely raised.
c.	Set the acceptable levels at the highest levels encountered, and keep them there unless future studies demonstrate negative health effects.
d.	Caution individuals to use their own judgment in deciding whether to drink water from a potentially contaminated area.
e.	Establish a contingency fund to handle insurance claims in the event that the chemical turns out to produce negative health effects.

Species transplants are one direct way of

a.	determining the abundance of a species in a specified area.
b.	determining the distribution of a species in a specified area.
c.	developing mathematical models for distribution and abundance of organisms.
d.	determining if dispersal is a key factor in limiting distribution of organisms.
e.	consolidating a landscape into a single ecosystem.

Introduced species

a.	often fail to colonize the new area.
b.	may become common enough to become pests.
c.	can disrupt the balance of the natural species with which they become associated.
d.	B and C only
e.	A, B, and C are all correct.

Which of the following abiotic factors has the greatest influence on the metabolic rates of plants and animals?

a.	water
b.	wind
c.	temperature
d.	rocks and soil
e.	disturbances

Which of the following statements about light in aquatic environments is (are) correct?

a.	Water selectively reflects and absorbs certain wavelengths of light.
b.	Photosynthetic organisms that live in deep water probably use red light.
c.	Light intensity is an important abiotic factor in limiting the distribution of photosynthetic organisms.
d.	A and C only
e.	A, B, and C are correct.

Westerly winds in temperate zones are the result of

a.	descending air masses flowing toward the poles.
b.	the rotation of Earth.
c.	the unequal speed of land moving through space at the equator and the poles.
d.	A and B only
e.	A, B, and C

10.

In mountainous areas of western North America, north-facing slopes (compared with south-facing slopes) would be expected to

a.	receive more sunlight.
b.	be warmer and drier.
c.	support biological communities similar to those found at lower elevations and higher latitudes.
d.	support biological communities similar to those found at higher elevations and higher latitudes.
e.	B and C only

11.

Coral reefs can be found on the southern east coast of the United States but not at similar latitudes on the southern west coast. Differences in which of the following most likely account for this?

a.	sunlight
b.	precipitation
c.	day length
d.	ocean currents
e.	salinity

12.

Deserts typically occur in a band at 30 degrees north and south latitude or at different latitudes in the interior of continents. This supports the idea that

a.	descending air masses tend to be dry.
b.	trade winds have a little moisture.
c.	water is heavier than air and is not carried far over land.
d.	ascending air tends to be moist.
e.	these locations get more than their share of sunlight.

13.

In an altitudinal gradient, all of the following would change in the same way as in a latitudinal gradient except

a.	temperature.
b.	humidity.
c.	vegetation.
d.	day length.
e.	communities.

14.

Thorough mixing of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall turnovers is made possible by which of the following?

a.	warm water layered at the top
b.	cold water layered at the bottom
c.	a pronounced thermocline under the surface
d.	changing water temperature profiles
e.	currents generated by nektonic animals

15.

Which of the following is responsible for the summer and winter stratification of lakes?

a.	Water is densest at 4°C.
b.	Oxygen is most abundant in deeper waters.
c.	Winter ice sinks in the summer.
d.	Stratification is caused by a thermocline.
e.	Stratification always follows the fall and spring turnovers.

16.

Generally speaking, deserts are located in places where air masses are usually

a.	cold.
b.	humid.
c.	rising.
d.	falling.
e.	expanding.

17.

Which of the following causes Earth's seasons?

a.	global air circulation
b.	global wind patterns
c.	ocean currents
d.	changes in Earth's distance from the sun
e.	the tilt of Earth's axis

18.

Which of the following events might you predict to occur if the tilt of Earth's axis relative to its plane of orbit was increased beyond 23.5 degrees?

a.	Summers in the United States might become warmer.
b.	Winters in Australia might become more severe.
c.	Seasonal variation at the equator might decrease.
d.	Only A and B are correct.
e.	A, B, and C are correct.

19.

Imagine some cosmic catastrophe jolts Earth so that its axis is perpendicular to the orbital plane between Earth and the sun. The most obvious effect of this change would be

a.	the elimination of tides.
b.	an increase in the length of night.
c.	an increase in the length of a year.
d.	the elimination of the greenhouse effect and a cooling of the equator.
e.	the elimination of seasonal variation.

20.

The success with which plants extend their range northward following glacial retreat is best determined by

a.	whether there is simultaneous migration of herbivores.
b.	their tolerance to shade.
c.	their seed dispersal rate.
d.	their size.
e.	their growth rate.

21.

As climate changes because of global warming, species' ranges in the northern hemisphere may move northward. The trees that are most likely to avoid extinction in such an environment are those that

a.	have wind-dispersed seeds.
b.	have animal-dispersed seeds.
c.	produce well-provisioned seeds.
d.	A and B only
e.	A, B, and C

22.

Which marine zone would have the lowest rates of primary productivity (photosynthesis)?

a.	pelagic
b.	abyssal
c.	neritic
d.	continental shelf
e.	intertidal

23.

The benthic zone in an aquatic biome

a.	often supports communities of organisms that feed largely on detritus.
b.	is the site of most photosynthesis within the biome.
c.	is where one would most expect to find a thermocline.
d.	B and C only
e.	A, B, and C

24.

Phytoplankton is most frequently found in which of the following zones?

a.	oligotrophic
b.	photic
c.	benthic
d.	abyssal
e.	aphotic

25.

You are planning a dive in a lake, and are eager to watch underwater organisms both close up and far away. You would do well to choose

a.	a nutrient-poor lake.
b.	a nutrient-rich lake.
c.	a relatively deep lake.
d.	A and C only
e.	B and C only

26.

You are interested in studying how organisms react to a gradient of abiotic conditions and how they coexist in this gradient. The best biome in which to conduct such a study is

a.	mountains.
b.	an intertidal zone.
c.	a river.
d.	tropical forest.
e.	an eutrophic lake.

27.

Which of the following statements about the ocean pelagic biome is true?

a.	The ocean is a vast, deep storehouse that always provides sustenance; it is the next "frontier" for feeding humanity.
b.	Because it is so immense, the ocean is a uniform environment.
c.	More photosynthesis occurs in the ocean than in any other biome.
d.	Pelagic ocean photosynthetic activity is disproportionately low in relation to the size of the biome.
e.	The most abundant animals are unicellular zooplankton.

28.

If a meteor impact or volcanic eruption injected a lot of dust into the atmosphere and reduced the sunlight reaching Earth's surface by 70% for one year, all of the following marine communities most likely would be greatly affected except

a.	deep-sea vent communities.
b.	coral reef communities.
c.	benthic communities.
d.	pelagic communities.
e.	estuary communities.

29.

Which of the following is not true about estuaries?

a.	Estuaries are often bordered by mudflats and salt marshes.
b.	Estuaries contain waters of varying salinity.
c.	Estuaries support a variety of animal life that humans consume.
d.	Estuaries usually contain no or few producers.
e.	Estuaries support many semiaquatic species.

30.

Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome distribution?

a.	Knowledge of annual temperature and precipitation is sufficient to predict which biome will be found in an area.
b.	Fluctuation of environmental variables is not important if areas have the same annual temperature and precipitation means.
c.	It is not only the average climate that is important in determining biome distribution, but also the pattern of climatic variation.
d.	Temperate forests, coniferous forests, and grasslands all have the same mean annual temperatures and precipitation.
e.	Correlation of climate with biome distribution is sufficient to determine the cause of biome patterns.

31.

Probably the most important factor(s) affecting the distribution of biomes is (are)

a.	wind and water current patterns.
b.	species diversity.
c.	community succession.
d.	climate.
e.	day length and rainfall.

32.

In the development of terrestrial biomes, which factor is most dependent on all the others?

a.	the species of colonizing animals
b.	prevailing temperature
c.	prevailing rainfall
d.	mineral nutrient availability
e.	soil structure

33.

An area in which different terrestrial biomes grade into each other is known as a(n)

a.	littoral zone.
b.	vertically stratified canopy.
c.	ecotone.
d.	abyssal zone.
e.	cline.

34.

Which of the following statements about biomes is incorrect?

a.	Biomes are major terrestrial communities.
b.	Within biomes there may be extensive patchiness.
c.	Climographs are often used to demonstrate climatic differences among biomes.
d.	Temperature and precipitation account for most of the variation between biomes.
e.	Biomes can be recognized as separate entities because they have sharp, well-defined boundaries.

35.

Two plant species live in the same biome but on different continents. Although the two species are not at all closely related, they may appear quite similar as a result of

a.	parallel evolution.
b.	convergent evolution.
c.	allopatric speciation.
d.	introgression.
e.	gene flow.

36.

Fire suppression by humans

a.	will always result in an increase in the number of species in a given biome.
b.	can change the species composition within biological communities.
c.	will result ultimately in sustainable production of increased amounts of wood for human use.
d.	is necessary for the protection of threatened and endangered forest species.
e.	both C and D

37.

Which of the following statements best describes the interaction between fire and ecosystems?

a.	The chance of fire in a given ecosystem is highly predictable over the short term.
b.	Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires.
c.	The prevention of forest fires has allowed more productive and stable plant communities to develop.
d.	Chaparral communities have evolved to the extent that they rarely burn.
e.	Fire is unnatural in ecosystems and should be prevented.

38.

Which biome is able to support many large animals despite receiving moderate amounts of rainfall?

a.	tropical rain forest
b.	temperate forest
c.	chaparral
d.	taiga
e.	savanna

39.

In which community would organisms most likely have adaptations enabling them to respond to different photoperiods?

a.	tropical forest
b.	coral reef
c.	savanna
d.	temperate forest
e.	abyssal

40.

The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes?

a.	savanna
b.	temperate broadleaf forest
c.	temperate grassland
d.	tropical rain forest
e.	taiga

41.

During a field trip, an instructor touched the body of a moth resting on a tree trunk. The moth raised its forewings to reveal large eye-spots on its hind wings. The instructor asked the class why the moth lifted its wings. One student answered that certain sensory receptors had fired and triggered a neuronal reflex culminating in the contraction of certain muscles. A second student responded that the behavior might frighten predators. Which statement best describes the students' explanations?

a.	The first response is correct, but the second is incorrect.
b.	The first response answers a proximate question, whereas the second answers an ultimate question.
c.	The first response is biological, whereas the second is philosophical.
d.	The first explanation is testable as a scientific hypothesis, whereas the second is not.
e.	Both explanations are reasonable and simply represent a difference of opinion.

Use the information below to answer the following questions.

When a female cat comes into heat, she urinates more frequently and in a large number of places. Male cats from the neighborhood congregate near urine deposits and fight with each other.

42.

Which of the following would be an ultimate cause of the male cats' response to the female's urinating behavior?

a.	The males have learned to recognize the specific odor of the urine of a female in heat.
b.	By smelling the odor, various neurons in the males' brains were stimulated.
c.	Male cats respond to the odor because it is a means of locating females in heat.
d.	Male cats' hormones are triggered by the odor released by the female.
e.	The odor serves as a releaser for the instinctive behavior of the males.

43.

Which of the following is a behavioral pattern that results from a proximate cause?

a.	A cat kills a mouse to obtain food.
b.	A male sheep fights with another male because it helps it to improve its social position and find a mate.
c.	A female bird lays its eggs because the amount of daylight is decreasing slightly each day.
d.	A goose squats and freezes motionless because that helps it to escape a predator.
e.	A cockroach runs into a crack in the wall and avoids being stepped on.

44.

Which of the following is a behavioral pattern resulting from an ultimate cause?

a.	A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because it resembles the breast of another male.
b.	A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because it is spring and hormonal changes increase its aggression.
c.	A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because a part of its brain is stimulated by objects that are red.
d.	A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because several times in the past red tennis balls have been thrown at it, and it has learned that they are dangerous.
e.	A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because it confuses it with an encroaching male who will steal his territory.

45.

The proximate causes of behavior are interactions with the environment, but behavior is ultimately shaped by

a.	hormones.
b.	evolution.
c.	sexuality.
d.	pheromones.
e.	the nervous system.

46.

Which of the following groups of scientists is closely associated with ethology?

a.	Watson, Crick, and Franklin
b.	McClintock, Goodall, and Lyon
c.	Fossey, Hershey, and Chase
d.	von Frisch, Lorenz, and Tinbergen
e.	Hardy, Weinberg, and Castle

47.

Which of the following statements is (are) true of fixed action patterns?

a.	They are highly stereotyped, instinctive behaviors.
b.	They are triggered by sign stimuli in the environment and, once begun, are continued to completion.
c.	An inappropriate stimulus can sometimes trigger them.
d.	A and B only
e.	A, B, and C

48.

What types of questions did Tinbergen study?

a.	genetics, biochemistry, development, behavior
b.	mechanism, development, evolution, fitness
c.	communication, genetics, behavior
d.	sexual selection, genetics, development, neurobiology
e.	evolution, behavior, sexual selection, development

49.

The time during imprinting when specific behaviors can be learned is called the

a.	window of imprinting.
b.	major period.
c.	sensitive period.
d.	timing imprint.
e.	significant window.

50.

Which of the following is least related to the others?

a.	fixed action pattern
b.	pheromones
c.	sign stimulus
d.	hormones
e.	optimal foraging

51.

Sow bugs become more active in dry areas and less active in humid areas. This is an example of

a.	taxis.
b.	tropism.
c.	kinesis.
d.	cognition.
e.	net reflex.

52.

You turn on a light and observe cockroaches scurrying to dark hiding places. What have you observed?

a.	taxis
b.	learned behavior
c.	migration
d.	visual communication
e.	operant conditioning

53.

Imagine that you are designing an experiment aimed at determining whether the initiation of migratory behavior is largely under genetic control. Of the following options, the best way to proceed is to

a.	observe different genetically distinct populations in the field and see if they have different migratory habits.
b.	perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have different migratory habits. Do this in the laboratory and see if offspring display parental migratory behavior.
c.	bring animals into the laboratory and determine the conditions under which they become restless and attempt to migrate.
d.	perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have different migratory habits. Rear the offspring in the absence of their parents and observe offspring migratory behavior.
e.	All of the above are equally productive ways to approach the question.

54.

Animal communication involves what type of sensory information?

a.	visual
b.	auditory
c.	chemical
d.	A and C only
e.	A, B, and C

Below is a list of signal types that animals use for communication. Choose the one that best fits the criteria in the following questions.

A)	olfactory
B)	visual
C)	auditory
D)	tactile
E)	electrical

55.

A long-lasting signal that works at night.

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

56.

A fast signal that requires daylight and no obstructions.

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

57.

Loss of responsiveness to stimuli that convey little or not information is called

a.	adapting.
b.	spacing.
c.	conditioning.
d.	imprinting.
e.	habituation.

58.

Which of the following would you classify as habituation?

a.	You enter a room and hear a fan motor. After a period of time, you are no longer aware of the sound of the fan motor.
b.	You are driving your car and you hear a horn. You step on the brakes, but notice the sound came from a car on a side street. You resume your previous speed.
c.	One morning you are awoken to a beep-beep-beep from a garbage truck working on a new early morning schedule. The next week the garbage truck arrives at the same time and makes the same noise, but does not wake you up.
d.	A and C only
e.	A, B, and C

59.

Learning in which an associated stimulus may be used to elicit the same behavioral response as the original sign stimulus is called

a.	concept formation.
b.	trial-and-error.
c.	classical conditioning.
d.	operant conditioning.
e.	habituation.

60.

Which of the following statements about learning and behavior is incorrect?

a.	Operant conditioning involves associating a behavior with a reward or punishment.
b.	Associative learning involves linking one stimulus with another.
c.	Classical conditioning involves trial-and-error learning.
d.	Behavior can be modified by learning, but some apparent learning is due to maturation.
e.	Imprinting is a learned behavior with an innate component acquired during a sensitive period.

Use the terms below to answer the following questions. Match the term that best fits each of the following descriptions of behavior. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A.	sign stimulus
B.	habituation
C.	imprinting
D.	classical conditioning
E.	operant conditioning

61.

A stickleback fish will attack a fish model as long as the model has red coloring.

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

62.

Parental protective behavior in turkeys is triggered by the cheeping sound of young chicks.

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

63.

Classical conditioning and operant conditioning are two forms of associative learning. They differ in that

a.	classical conditioning takes longer.
b.	operant conditioning usually involves more intelligence.
c.	operant conditioning involves consequences for the animal's behavior.
d.	classical conditioning is restricted to mammals and birds.
e.	classical conditioning is much more useful for training domestic animals.

64.

Among song birds, a "crystallized" song is one that

a.	is high pitched.
b.	is aimed at attracting mates.
c.	extremely young chicks sing.
d.	is the final song that some species produce.
e.	warns of predators.

65.

Stevan Arnold discovered that coastal and inland garter snakes reacted differently to banana slug prey. What probably accounts for such a difference?

a.	Ancestors of coastal snakes that were able to eat the abundant slugs had increased fitness. No such selection occurred inland, where slugs were absent.
b.	Slugs are difficult to see, and inland snakes, which have poor vision compared with coastal snakes, are less able to see them.
c.	Garter snakes learn about prey from other garter snakes. Inland snakes are less social, and this lowers prey diversity.
d.	Inland snakes overlap with distasteful slugs, and thus learn to avoid them. Coastal slugs are not distasteful.
e.	Garter snakes are conditioned to eat what their mother eats. The mothers of Arnold's coastal snakes happened to prefer slugs.

66.

Animals tend to maximize their energy intake-to-expenditure ratio. What is this behavior called?

a.	agonistic behavior
b.	optimal foraging
c.	dominance hierarchies
d.	animal cognition
e.	territoriality

67.

Feeding behavior that has a high energy intake-to-expenditure ratio is called

a.	herbivory.
b.	autotrophy.
c.	heterotrophy.
d.	search scavenging.
e.	optimal foraging.

68.

Which of the following is not a concept associated with sociobiology?

a.	parental investment
b.	inclusive fitness
c.	associative learning
d.	reciprocal altruism
e.	kin selection

69.

Optimal foraging involves all of the following except

a.	maximizing energy gained by the forager.
b.	minimizing energy expended by the forager.
c.	securing essential nutrients for the forager.
d.	minimizing the risk of predation on the forager.
e.	maximizing the population size of the forager.

70.

In the evolution of whelk-eating behavior in the crows studied by Reto Zach, which of the following was being minimized by natural selection?

a.	the average number of drops required to break the shell
b.	the average height a bird flew to drop a shell
c.	the average total energy used to break shells
d.	the average size of the shells dropped by the birds
e.	the average thickness of the shells dropped by the birds

71.

Which of the following might affect the foraging behavior of an animal in the context of optimal foraging?

a.	risk of predation
b.	prey size
c.	prey defenses
d.	A and B only
e.	A, B, and C

72.

The evolution of mating systems is most likely affected by

a.	population size.
b.	care required by young.
c.	certainty of paternity.
d.	B and C only
e.	A, B , and C

73.

Fred and Joe, two unrelated, mature male gorillas, encounter one another. Fred is courting a female. Fred grunts as Joe comes near. As Joe continues to advance, Fred begins drumming (pounding his chest) and bares his teeth. At this, Joe rolls on the ground on his back, then gets up and quickly leaves. This behavioral pattern is repeated several times during the mating season. Choose the most specific behavior described by this example.

a.	agonistic behavior
b.	territorial behavior
c.	learned behavior
d.	social behavior
e.	fixed action pattern

74.

Which of the following is least related to the others?

a.	altruism
b.	polygamy
c.	monogamy
d.	polygyny
e.	polyandry

75.

Which of the following does not have a coefficient of relatedness of 0.5?

a.	a father to his daughter
b.	a mother to her son
c.	an uncle to his nephew
d.	a brother to his brother
e.	a sister to her brother

Match each phrase to a scientist from the list below.

A)	Karl von Frisch
B)	Niko Tinbergen
C)	Konrad Lorenz
D)	William Hamilton
E)	Ivan Pavlov

76.

devised a rule that predicts when natural selection should favor altruism

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

77.

studied imprinting of graylag geese

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

78.

The central concept of sociobiology is that

a.	human behavior is rigidly predetermined.
b.	the behavior of an individual cannot be modified.
c.	our behavior consists mainly of fixed action patterns.
d.	most aspects of our social behavior have an evolutionary basis.
e.	the social behavior of humans is homologous to the social behavior of honeybees.

Match each of the phrases to a scientist from the list below.

A)	E. O. Wilson
B)	Jane Goodall
C)	B. S. Haldane
D)	Niko Tinbergen
E)	William Hamilton

79.

formulated four questions that motivate modern behavioral biology

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

80.

suggested that human social behavior may have a genetic basis

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

81.

developed the concept of inclusive fitness

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

82.

A biologist reported that a sample of ocean water had 5 million diatoms of the species Coscinodiscus centralis per cubic meter. What was the biologist measuring?

a.	density
b.	dispersion
c.	carrying capacity
d.	quadrats
e.	range

83.

All of the following phrases could characterize a population except

a.	interacting individuals.
b.	dispersion.
c.	density.
d.	several species.
e.	boundaries.

84.

To measure the population density of monarch butterflies occupying a particular park, 100 butterflies are captured, marked with a small dot on a wing, and then released. The next day, another 100 butterflies are captured, including the recapture of 20 marked butterflies. One would estimate the population to be

a.	200.
b.	500.
c.	1,000.
d.	10,000.
e.	900,000.

85.

You are studying the mice that live in a pasture near your home. There are lots of mice in this pasture, but you realize that you rarely observe any reproductive females. This most likely indicates

a.	that there is selective predation on female mice.
b.	that female mice die before reproducing.
c.	that this habitat is not a good place for mice to reproduce.
d.	that you are observing immigrant mice.
e.	both C and D

86.

You are observing a population of lizards when you notice that the number of adults has increased and is higher than previously observed. One explanation for such an observation would include

a.	reduction in death rate.
b.	increased immigration.
c.	increased emigration.
d.	decreased emigration.
e.	both B and D

87.

The most common kind of dispersion in nature is

a.	clumped.
b.	random.
c.	uniform.
d.	indeterminate.
e.	dispersive.

88.

The pattern of dispersion for a certain species of kelp is clumped. The pattern of dispersion for a certain species of snail that lives only on this kelp would likely be

a.	absolute.
b.	clumped.
c.	demographic.
d.	random.
e.	uniform.

89.

Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with

a.	chance.
b.	patterns of high humidity.
c.	the random distribution of seeds.
d.	antagonistic interactions among individuals in the population.
e.	the concentration of resources within the population's range.

90.

Which of the following would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion?

a.	red squirrels, which hide food and actively defend territories
b.	cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams
c.	dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest trees
d.	tassel-eared squirrels, which are nonterritorial
e.	lake trout, which seek out deep water

91.

Life tables are useful in determining which of the following?

I.	carrying capacity
II.	mortality rates
III.	the fate of a cohort of newborn organisms throughout their lives

a.	I only
b.	II only
c.	III only
d.	I and III only
e.	II and III only

Use the survivorship curves in the figure below to answer the following questions.

92.

Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants?

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

93.

Which curve best describes survivorship in a marine crustacean that molts?

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

94.

Which curve best describes survivorship in humans who live in developed nations?

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

95.

Which curve best describes survivorship in squirrels?

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

96.

In order to construct a reproductive table for a sexual species, you need to

a.	assess sperm viability.
b.	keep track of all of the offspring of a cohort.
c.	keep track of the females in a cohort.
d.	keep track of all of the offspring of the females in a cohort.
e.	keep track of the ratio of deaths to births in a cohort.

97.

Life history strategies usually result from

a.	environmental pressures.
b.	natural selection.
c.	conscious choice.
d.	A and B only
e.	A, B, and C

98.

Natural selection has led to the evolution of diverse natural history strategies, which have in common

a.	many offspring per reproductive episode.
b.	limitation by density-dependent limiting factors.
c.	adaptation to stable environments.
d.	maximum lifetime reproductive success.
e.	relatively large offspring.

99.

Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between or among life history traits such as

a.	number of offspring per reproductive episode.
b.	number of reproductive episodes per lifetime.
c.	age at first reproduction.
d.	A and C only
e.	A, B, and C

100.

Which of the following aspects of an organism's life is least relevant to its life history?

a.	number of offspring per reproductive bout
b.	age at which it first reproduces
c.	frequency of reproduction
d.	frequency of dispersal
e.	all of the above

101.

A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Estimate the number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1,000 individuals in one year.

a.	120 individuals added
b.	40 individuals added
c.	20 individuals added
d.	400 individuals added
e.	20 individuals lost

102.

A small population of white-footed mice has the same intrinsic rate of increase (r) as a large population. If everything else is equal,

a.	the large population will add more individuals per unit time.
b.	the small population will add more individuals per unit time.
c.	the two populations will add equal numbers of individuals per unit time.
d.	the J-shaped growth curves will look identical.
e.	the growth trajectories of the two populations will proceed in opposite directions.

103.

Imagine that you are managing a large ranch. You know from historical accounts that wild sheep used to live there, but they have been exterminated. You decide to reintroduce them. After doing some research to determine what might be an appropriate founding population, you do so. You then watch the population increase, and graph the number of individuals (vertical axis) against the number of generations (horizontal axis). The graph will

a.	be a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation.
b.	look like an "S," increasing with each generation.
c.	look like an upside-down "U."
d.	look like a "J," increasing with each generation.
e.	look like none of the above.

Use the following choices to answer the question below. Each choice may be used once, more than once,or not at all.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

104.

Exponential growth of a population is represented by dN/dt =

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

105.

As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation?

a.	The growth rate will not change.
b.	The growth rate will approach zero.
c.	The population will show an Allee effect.
d.	The population will increase exponentially.
e.	The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.

106.

In models of sigmoidal (logistic) population growth,

a.	population growth rate slows dramatically as N approaches K.
b.	new individuals are added to the population most rapidly at intermediate population sizes.
c.	density-dependent factors affect the rate of population growth.
d.	All of the above are true.
e.	Only A and C are true.

107.

The Allee effect is a phenomenon that occurs when population size

a.	becomes too small.
b.	becomes too large.
c.	approaches carrying capacity.
d.	exceeds carrying capacity.
e.	more than one of the above

Refer to the terms below to answer the following questions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A	cohort
B.	dispersion
C.	Allee effect
D.	iteroparous
E.	semelparous

108.

Pacific salmon or annual plants

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

109.

reproduce more than once in a lifetime

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

110.

A predator might be more likely to be spotted if a large number of prey are all together than it would be by a single prey animal.

a.	A
b.	B
c.	C
d.	D
e.	E

111.

Which of the following statements about the logistic model of population growth is incorrect?

a.	It fits an S-shaped curve.
b.	It incorporates the concept of carrying capacity.
c.	It describes population density shifts over time.
d.	It accurately predicts the growth of most populations.
e.	It predicts an eventual state in which birth rate equals death rate.

112.

Which of the following is true?

a.	K-selection can be density-independent.
b.	r-selection occurs in crowded environments.
c.	Different populations of the same species will be consistently r- or K-selected.
d.	r- and K-selection are two extremes of a range of life history strategies.
e.	r-selection tends to maximize population size, not the rate of increase in population size.

113.

The life history traits favored by selection are most likely to vary with

a.	fluctuations in K.
b.	the shape of the J curve.
c.	the maximum size of a population.
d.	population density.
e.	the terms used in the logistic equation.

114.

All of the following characteristics are typical of an r-selected population except

a.	occurrence in variable environments.
b.	high intrinsic rate of growth.
c.	onset of reproduction at an early age.
d.	extensive parental care of offspring.
e.	occurrence in open habitats.

115.

Which of the following statements about the evolution of life histories is correct?

a.	Stable environments with limited resources favor r-selected populations.
b.	K-selected populations are most often found in environments where density-independent factors are important regulators of population size.
c.	Most populations have both r- and K-selected characteristics that vary under different environmental conditions.
d.	The reproductive efforts of r-selected populations are directed at producing just a few offspring with good competitive abilities.
e.	K-selected populations rarely approach carrying capacity.

116.

Your friend comes to you with a problem. It seems his shrimp boats aren't catching nearly as much shrimp as they used to. He can't understand it because originally he caught all the shrimp he could handle. Each year he added a new boat, and for a long time each boat caught tons of shrimp. As he added more boats, there came a time when each boat caught a little less shrimp, and now, each boat is catching a lot less shrimp. Which of the following topics might help your friend understand the source of his problem?

a.	density-dependent population regulation
b.	logistic growth and intrinsic characteristics of population growth
c.	density-independent population regulation
d.	A and B only
e.	A, B, and C

117.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the regulation of populations?

a.	The logistic equation reflects the effect of density-dependent factors, which can ultimately stabilize populations around the carrying capacity.
b.	Density-independent factors have an increasingly greater effect as a population's density increases.
c.	High densities in a population may cause physiological changes that inhibit reproduction.
d.	Because of the overlapping nature of population-regulating factors, it is often difficult to precisely determine their cause-and-effect relationships.
e.	The occurrence of population cycles in some populations may be the result of crowding or lag times in the response to density-dependent factors.

118.

In a mature forest of oak, maple, and hickory trees, a disease causes a reduction in the number of acorns produced by oak trees. Which of the following would least likely be a direct result of this?

a.	There might be fewer squirrels because they feed on acorns.
b.	There might be fewer mice and seed-eating birds because squirrels would eat more seeds and compete with the mice and birds.
c.	There might be an increase in the number of hickory trees because the competition between hickory nuts and acorns for germination sites would be reduced or eliminated.
d.	There might be fewer owls because they feed on baby squirrels, mice, and young seed-eating birds, whose populations would be reduced.
e.	There might be a decrease in the number of maple seeds as the disease spreads to other trees in the forest.

119.

You are studying a population of finches on one island in an archipelago. You find that your population is much larger than you would predict from your careful recording of hatching, fledgling, and death rates. The likely explanation for this observation is

a.	you are dealing with a metapopulation.
b.	your island is the source of emigration.
c.	your island is the target of immigration.
d.	A and C only
e.	A, B, and C

120.

Consider several human populations of equal size and net reproductive rate, but different in age structure. The population that is likely to grow the most during the next 30 years is the one with the greatest fraction of people in which age range?

a.	50 to 60 years
b.	40 to 50 years
c.	30 to 40 years
d.	20 to 30 years
e.	10 to 20 years

The following questions refer to the figure below, which depicts the age structure of three populations.

121.

Which population is in the process of decreasing?

a.	I
b.	II
c.	III
d.	I and II
e.	II and III

122.

Which of the following is not used in calculating an ecological footprint?

a.	arable land
b.	pasture and forest lands
c.	fossil energy land
d.	demographically transitional land
e.	built-up land

123.

The unit(s) of measurement for an ecological footprint is (are)

a.	weight of biomass per year.
b.	number of species per ecosystem.
c.	number of individuals per population.
d.	number of people per continent.
e.	area of land per person.

124.

All of the following have contributed to the growth of the human population except

a.	environmental degradation.
b.	improved nutrition.
c.	vaccines.
d.	pesticides.
e.	improved sanitation.

125.

Which of the following variables is (are) important in contributing to the rapid growth of human populations?

a.	the high percentage of young people relative to the whole population
b.	the average age to first give birth
c.	the carrying capacity of the environment
d.	A and B only
e.	A, B, and C

126.

Communities can be linked by which of the following?

I.	predation
II.	systematics
III.	competition

a.	I only
b.	III only
c.	I and II only
d.	I and III only
e.	I, II, and III

127.

Which of the following statements is consistent with the competitive exclusion principle?

a.	Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites.
b.	The density of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species.
c.	Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species.
d.	Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of inferior species.
e.	Evolution tends to increase competition between related species.

128.

The presence of all of the following tend to increase species diversity except

a.	competitive exclusion.
b.	keystone predators.
c.	patchy environments.
d.	moderate disturbances.
e.	migration of populations.

129.

According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same

a.	habitat.
b.	niche.
c.	territory.
d.	range.
e.	biome.

130.

The entire box shown in the figure below represents the niche of species A. Species A is biologically constrained from the striped area of its niche by species B. This is an example of

a.	dynamic stability.
b.	facilitation.
c.	commensalism.
d.	competitive exclusion.
e.	secondary succession.

131.

The sum total of an organism's interaction with the biotic and abiotic resources of its environment is called its

a.	habitat.
b.	logistic growth.
c.	biotic potential.
d.	microclimax.
e.	ecological niche.

132.

Two barnacles, Balanus and Chthamalus, can both survive on the lower rocks just above the low-tide line on the Scottish coast, but only Balanus actually does so, with Chthamalus adopting a higher zone. Which of the following best accounts for this niche separation?

a.	competitive exclusion
b.	predation of Chthamalus by Balanus
c.	cooperative displacement
d.	primary succession
e.	mutualism

133.

All of the following describe possible results of competition between two species except

a.	competitive exclusion.
b.	aposematic coloration.
c.	resource partitioning.
d.	reduction in the population of one species.
e.	reduction in the populations of both species.

134.

Resource partitioning is best described by which of the following statements?

a.	Competitive exclusion results in the success of the superior species.
b.	Slight variations in niche allow similar species to coexist.
c.	Two species can coevolve and share the same niche.
d.	Species diversity is maintained by switching between prey species.
e.	A climax community is reached when no new niches are available.

135.

As you study two closely related predatory insect species, the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles, you notice that each species seeks prey at dawn in areas without the other species. Where their ranges overlap, however, the two-spot avenger beetle hunts at night and the three-spot hunts in the morning. When you bring them into the laboratory, their offspring behave in the same manner. You have discovered an example of

a.	mutualism.
b.	character displacement.
c.	Batesian mimicry.
d.	facultative commensalism.
e.	none of the above

136.

Resource partitioning would be most likely to occur between

a.	sympatric populations of a predator and its prey.
b.	sympatric populations of species with similar ecological niches.
c.	sympatric populations of a flowering plant and its specialized insect pollinator.
d.	allopatric populations of the same animal species.
e.	allopatric populations of species with similar ecological niches.

137.

An insect that has evolved to resemble a plant twig will probably be able to avoid

a.	parasitism.
b.	symbiosis.
c.	predation.
d.	competition.
e.	commensalism.