Multiple Choice
Identify the
choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1.
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A marine sea star was mistakenly placed in freshwater and it died. What is the
most likely explanation for its death?
a. | The sea star was stressed and needed more time to adapt to new
conditions. | b. | The sea star is hypertonic to the freshwater, and it could not
osmoregulate. | c. | The osmoregulatory system of the sea star could not handle the change in ionic
content presented by the freshwater. | d. | The contractile vacuoles used to regulate water
content ruptured in the freshwater. | e. | The cells of the sea star dehydrated and lost
the ability to metabolize. |
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2.
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Organisms categorized as osmoconformers are most likely
a. | terrestrial. | b. | marine. | c. | amphibious. | d. | found in freshwater
streams. | e. | found in freshwater lakes. |
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3.
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All of the following represent adaptations by terrestrial animals to drying
conditions except
a. | anhydrobiosis. | b. | salt glands. | c. | efficient
kidneys. | d. | impervious surfaces. | e. | increased
thirst. |
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4.
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The digestion and utilization of which nutrient creates the greatest need for
osmoregulation by the kidneys?
a. | protein | b. | starch | c. | fat | d. | oil | e. | cellulose |
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5.
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Which of the molecules shown in the figure below represents urea? 
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6.
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Which of the following is true of urea? It is
a. | insoluble in water. | b. | more toxic to human cells than
ammonia. | c. | the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans. | d. | the primary
nitrogenous waste product of most birds. | e. | the primary nitrogenous waste product of most
aquatic invertebrates. |
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7.
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Which of the following is true of ammonia?
a. | It is soluble in water. | b. | It can be stored as a
precipitate. | c. | It has low toxicity relative to urea. | d. | Only A and C are true. | e. | A, B, and C are
true. |
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8.
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Which of the following is not a function of the liver?
a. | storage of glycogen | b. | secretion of urea | c. | production of plasma
proteins | d. | removal of glucose from the blood | e. | detoxification of chemical poisons in the
blood |
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9.
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The advantage of excreting wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that
a. | urea can be exchanged for Na+. | b. | urea is less toxic
than ammonia. | c. | urea requires more water for excretion than ammonia. | d. | urea does not affect
the osmolar gradient. | e. | less nitrogen is removed from the
body. |
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10.
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Which of the following is a nitrogenous waste that requires hardly any water for
its excretion?
a. | amino acid | b. | urea | c. | uric
acid | d. | ammonia | e. | nitrogen gas |
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11.
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Which organism(s) has excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules?
a. | earthworms | b. | flatworms | c. | insects | d. | jellyfish | e. | both A and
B |
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12.
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Which of the following excretory systems is partly based on the filtration of
fluid under high hydrostatic pressure?
a. | flame-bulb system of flatworms | b. | protonephridia of rotifers | c. | metanephridia of
earthworms | d. | Malpighian tubules of insects | e. | kidneys of
vertebrates |
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13.
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The transfer of fluid from the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule
a. | results from active transport. | b. | transfers large molecules as easily as small
ones. | c. | is very selective as to which small molecules are transferred. | d. | is mainly a
consequence of blood pressure force-filtering the fluid. | e. | usually includes the
transfer of red blood cells to the nephron tubule. |
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14.
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Which part of the vertebrate nephron consists of capillaries?
a. | glomerulus | b. | loop of Henle | c. | distal
tubule | d. | Bowman's capsule | e. | collecting duct |
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15.
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Which of the following normally contains blood?
a. | vasa recta | b. | Bowman's capsule | c. | loop of
Henle | d. | proximal tubule | e. | collecting duct |
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Refer to the figure below, a diagram of a renal tubule, to answer the
following questions.
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16.
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In which region would urine become more concentrated?
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17.
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In which region would nutrients be actively transported to the blood?
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18.
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Which structure passes urine to the renal pelvis?
a. | loop of Henle | b. | collecting duct | c. | Bowman's
capsule | d. | proximal tubule | e. | glomerulus |
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19.
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Which structure possesses specialized cells called podocytes?
a. | loop of Henle | b. | collecting duct | c. | Bowman's
capsule | d. | proximal tubule | e. | glomerulus |
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20.
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Which structure is the first section of the nephron tubule into which the
filtrate enters?
a. | loop of Henle | b. | collecting duct | c. | ureter | d. | proximal tubule | e. | glomerulus |
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21.
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Which structure descends deep into the renal medulla only in juxtamedullary
nephrons?
a. | loop of Henle | b. | collecting duct | c. | Bowman's
capsule | d. | proximal convoluted tubule | e. | glomerulus |
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22.
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All of the following are functions of the mammalian kidney except
a. | water reabsorption. | b. | filtration of blood. | c. | excretion of
nitrogenous waste. | d. | regulation of salt balance in the
blood. | e. | production of urea as a waste product of protein
catabolism. |
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23.
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Which of the following is not true concerning transport epithelia
involved in water balance?
a. | One surface of the epithelium faces the outside environment directly or
indirectly. | b. | The epithelium is a semipermeable barrier. | c. | The surface area is
small, which prevents excessive water loss. | d. | The epithelium regulates the movement of
solutes. | e. | Cells are joined by tight junctions. |
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24.
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Which one of the following, if present in a urine sample, would likely be caused
by trauma?
a. | amino acids | b. | glucose | c. | salts | d. | erythrocytes | e. | vitamins |
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25.
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A toxin that specifically blocks active transport in the loop of Henle might
result in which of the following?
a. | a decrease in the interstitial concentration of NaCl | b. | a decrease in the
filtrate concentration ability of the kidney | c. | an increase in the amount of interstitial urea
to maintain interstitial osmolarity | d. | A and C only | e. | A, B and
C |
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26.
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Depending on salt intake and water availability, humans can produce urine that
is
a. | hyperosmotic to body fluids. | b. | hypoosmotic to body fluids. | c. | isoosmotic to body
fluids. | d. | A and B are true. | e. | A, B, and C are
true. |
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27.
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What would account for increased urine production as a result of drinking
alcoholic beverages?
a. | increased aldosterone production | b. | increased blood pressure | c. | decreased amount of
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) | d. | increased reabsorption of water in the proximal
tubule | e. | the osmoregulator cells of the brain increasing their
activity |
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28.
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Hormones involved in the production of urine include all of the following
except
a. | aldosterone. | b. | angiotensin. | c. | ADH. | d. | atrial natriuretic factor. | e. | secretin. |
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29.
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Which statement is true about marine fishes?
a. | Compared to marine fishes, freshwater fishes have fewer
glomeruli. | b. | The kidneys of marine fishes excrete little urine. | c. | Marine fishes lack
proximal tubules. | d. | Marine fishes secrete uric acid to conserve
water. | e. | Their kidneys produce filtrate at high rates. |
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30.
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The secretion of hormone A causes a change in the amount of protein X in an
organism. If this mechanism works by positive feedback, which of the following statements represents
that fact?
a. | An increase in A produces an increase in X. | b. | An increase in X
produces a decrease in A. | c. | A decrease in A produces an increase in
X. | d. | A and B are correct. | e. | B and C are
correct. |
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31.
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Which of the following is (are) true?
a. | Hormones regulate cellular functions, and negative feedback regulates hormone
levels. | b. | The circulating level of a hormone is held constant through a series of positive
feedback loops. | c. | Both lipid-soluble hormones and water-soluble hormones bind to intracellular protein
receptors. | d. | Only A and D are true. | e. | A, B, and C are
true. |
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32.
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What do nitric oxide and epinephrine have in common?
a. | They both function as neurotransmitters. | b. | They both function
as hormones. | c. | They are both involved in the "fight-or-flight"
response. | d. | Only A and B are correct. | e. | A, B, and C are
correct. |
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33.
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Substance X is secreted by one cell, travels a short distance through
interstitial fluid, and produces an effect in a cell immediately adjacent to the original secreting
cell. All of the following terms could describe this substance except
a. | nitric oxide. | b. | neurotransmitter. | c. | prostaglandin. | d. | pheromone. | e. | growth
factor. |
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34.
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Based on their effects, which pair below could be considered
antagonistic?
a. | prostaglandin F and nitric oxide | b. | growth hormone and ecdysone | c. | endocrine and
exocrine glands | d. | hormones and target cells | e. | neurosecretory cells and
neurotransmitters |
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35.
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Which of the following is a local regulator responsible for activating an enzyme
that relaxes smooth muscle cells?
a. | nitric oxide | b. | prostaglandin F | c. | epinephrine | d. | A and B only | e. | A, B, and
C |
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36.
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Which of the following examples is incorrectly paired with its class?
a. | histamine-local regulator | b. | estrogen-steroid hormone | c. | prostaglandin-peptide hormone | d. | ecdysone-steroid hormone | e. | neurotransmitter-local regulator |
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37.
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What is the mode of action of aspirin and ibuprofen?
a. | They inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins. | b. | They inhibit the
release of nitric oxide, a potent vasodilator. | c. | They block paracrine signaling
pathways. | d. | They stimulate the release of oxytocin. | e. | They stimulate the
release of endorphins. |
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38.
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A cell that contains proteins enabling a hormone to selectively bind to its
plasma membrane is called a(n)
a. | secretory cell. | b. | plasma cell. | c. | endocrine
cell. | d. | target cell. | e. | regulatory
cell. |
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39.
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Why is it that some body cells respond differently to the same peptide
hormones?
a. | Different target cells have different genes. | b. | Each cell knows how
it fits into the body's master plan. | c. | A target cell's response is determined by
the product of a signal transduction pathway. | d. | The circulatory system regulates responses to
hormones by routing the hormones to specific targets. | e. | The hormone is chemically altered in different
ways as it travels through the circulatory system. |
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40.
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Frequently, very few molecules of a hormone are required to affect changes in a
target cell. This is because
a. | hormones are lipid-soluble and readily penetrate the membranes of the target
cell. | b. | hormones are large molecules that remain in circulation for months and can repeatedly
stimulate the same cell. | c. | the mechanism of hormonal action involves an
enzyme cascade that amplifies the response to a hormone. | d. | the mechanism of
hormonal action involves the rapid replication of the hormone within the target
cell. | e. | the mechanism of hormonal action involves memory cells that have had prior contact
with the hormone. |
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41.
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Hormone X produces its effect in its target cells via the cAMP second messenger
system. Which of the following will produce the greatest effect in the cell?
a. | a molecule of hormone X applied to the extracellular fluid surrounding the
cell | b. | a molecule of hormone X injected into the cytoplasm of the cell | c. | a molecule of cAMP
applied to the extracellular fluid surrounding the cell | d. | a molecule of cAMP
injected into the cytoplasm of the cell | e. | a molecule of activated, cAMP-dependent protein
kinase injected into the cytoplasm of the cell |
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42.
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Which of the following statements about hormones is correct?
a. | Steroid and peptide hormones produce different effects but use the same biochemical
mechanisms. | b. | Steroid and peptide hormones produce the same effects but differ in the mechanisms
that produce the effects. | c. | Steroid hormones affect the synthesis of
proteins, whereas peptide hormones affect the activity of proteins already present in the
cell. | d. | Steroid hormones affect the activity of certain proteins within the cell, whereas
peptide hormones directly affect the processing of mRNA. | e. | Steroid hormones
affect the synthesis of proteins to be exported from the cell, whereas peptide hormones affect the
synthesis of proteins that remain in the cell. |
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43.
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Hormones from the hypothalamus affect the release of all of the following
except
a. | prolactin. | b. | oxytocin. | c. | growth
hormone. | d. | thyroid-stimulating hormone. | e. | adrenocorticotropic
hormone. |
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44.
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The endocrine system and the nervous system are structurally related. Which of
the following cells best illustrates this relationship?
a. | a neuron in the spinal cord | b. | a steroid-producing cell in the adrenal
cortex | c. | a neurosecretory cell in the hypothalamus | d. | a brain cell in the
cerebral cortex | e. | a cell in the pancreas that produces digestive
enzymes |
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45.
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The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary by means of
a. | releasing hormones. | b. | second messengers. | c. | third
messengers. | d. | antibodies. | e. | pyrogens. |
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46.
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Short blood vessels connect two capillary beds lying in which of the
following?
a. | hypothalamus and thalamus | b. | anterior pituitary and posterior
pituitary | c. | hypothalamus and anterior pituitary | d. | posterior pituitary and thyroid
gland | e. | anterior pituitary and adrenal gland |
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47.
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If a person drinks a large amount of water in a short period of time, he or she
may die from water toxicity. ADH can help prevent water retention through interaction with target
cells in the
a. | anterior pituitary. | b. | posterior pituitary. | c. | adrenal
gland. | d. | bladder. | e. | kidney. |
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48.
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Prolactin stimulates mammary gland growth and development in mammals and
regulates salt and water balance in freshwater fish. Many scientists think that this wide range of
functions indicates which of the following?
a. | Prolactin is a nonspecific hormone. | b. | Prolactin has a unique mechanism for eliciting
its effects. | c. | Prolactin is an evolutionary conserved hormone. | d. | Prolactin is derived
from two separate sources. | e. | Prolactin interacts with many different
receptor molecules. |
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49.
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Which of the following have nontropic effects only?
a. | FSH | b. | LH | c. | TSH | d. | MSH | e. | ACTH |
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50.
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Iodine is added to commercially-prepared table salt to help prevent deficiencies
of this essential mineral. Which gland(s) require(s) iodine to function properly?
a. | parathyroids | b. | adrenal | c. | thyroid | d. | pancreas | e. | ovaries and
testes |
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51.
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Tropic hormones from the anterior pituitary directly affect the release of which
of the following?
a. | parathyroid hormone | b. | calcitonin | c. | epinephrine | d. | thyroxine | e. | glucagon |
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52.
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One reason a person might be severely overweight is due to
a. | an undersecretion of thyroxine. | b. | a defect in hormone release from the posterior
pituitary. | c. | a lower than normal level of insulin-like growth factors. | d. | hyposecretion of
oxytocin. | e. | a higher than normal level of endorphins. |
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53.
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Which of the following statements about endocrine glands is
incorrect?
a. | The parathyroids regulate metabolic rate. | b. | The thyroid
participates in blood calcium regulation. | c. | The pituitary participates in the regulation of
the gonads. | d. | The adrenal medulla produces "fight-or-flight"
responses. | e. | The pancreas helps to regulate blood sugar
concentration. |
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54.
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Which of the following is an endocrine gland?
a. | parathyroid gland | b. | salivary gland | c. | sweat
gland | d. | sebaceous gland | e. | gallbladder |
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55.
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Which of the following glands shows both endocrine and exocrine activity?
a. | pituitary | b. | parathyroid | c. | salivary | d. | pancreas | e. | adrenal |
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56.
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Blood samples taken from an individual who had been fasting for 24 hours would
have which of the following?
a. | high levels of insulin | b. | high levels of glucagon | c. | low levels of
insulin | d. | low levels of glucagon | e. | both B and C |
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57.
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What happens when beta cells of the pancreas release insulin into the
blood?
a. | Blood glucose levels rise to a set point and stimulate glucagon
release. | b. | Body cells take up more glucose. | c. | The liver breaks down glycogen to
glucose. | d. | Alpha cells are stimulated to release glucose into the blood. | e. | Both B and D are
correct. |
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58.
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The endocrine system and the nervous system are chemically related. Which of the
following substances best illustrates this relationship?
a. | estrogen | b. | calcitonin | c. | norepinephrine | d. | calcium | e. | ecdysone |
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59.
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Which of the following glands is controlled directly by the hypothalamus or
central nervous system but not the anterior pituitary?
a. | ovary | b. | adrenal medulla | c. | adrenal
cortex | d. | testis | e. | thyroid |
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60.
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If the adrenal cortex were removed, which group of hormones would be most
affected?
a. | steroid | b. | peptide | c. | tropic | d. | amino acid-derived | e. | paracrine |
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61.
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Which of the following statements about the adrenal gland is
correct?
a. | During stress, TSH stimulates the adrenal cortex and medulla to secrete
acetylcholine. | b. | During stress, the alpha cells of islets secrete insulin and simultaneously the beta
cells of the islets secrete glucagon. | c. | During stress, ACTH stimulates the adrenal
cortex, and neurons of the sympathetic nervous system stimulate the adrenal
medulla. | d. | At all times, the anterior portion secretes ACTH, while the posterior portion
secretes oxytocin. | e. | At all times, the adrenal gland monitors
calcium levels in the blood and regulates calcium by secreting the two antagonistic hormones,
epinephrine and norepinephrine. |
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The question below refers to the following information.
In an
experiment, rats' ovaries were removed immediately after impregnation and then the rats were
divided into two groups. Treatments and results are summarized in the table below. | | Group 1 | Group 2 | | Daily
injections of progeterone (milligrams) | 0.25 | 2.0 | | Percentage of rats that carried fetuses to birth | 0 | 100 | | | |
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62.
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Which of the following hormone sequences is correct?
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63.
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Which combination of gland and hormone would be linked to winter hibernation and
spring reproduction in bears?
a. | pineal gland, melatonin | b. | hypothalamus gland,
melatonin | c. | anterior pituitary gland, gonadotropin-releasing hormone | d. | pineal gland,
estrogen | e. | posterior pituitary gland, thyroid-stimulating
hormone |
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Refer to the list of hormones below to answer the following questions. Each
hormone may be used once, more than once, or not at all.| A. | ecdysone | | B. | glucagon | | C. | thyroxine | | D. | oxytocin | | E. | growth hormone | | |
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64.
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secreted by the pancreas
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65.
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stimulates and maintains metabolic processes
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66.
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stimulates the contraction of uterine muscle
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67.
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secreted by the anterior pituitary
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68.
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Which of the following endocrine structures is (are) not controlled by a
tropic hormone from the anterior pituitary?
a. | pancreatic islet cells | b. | thyroid gland | c. | adrenal
cortex | d. | ovaries | e. | testes |
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Refer to the following list of hormones below to answer the following
questions. Each hormone may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
| A | androgens | | B. | estrogens | | C. | progestins | | D. | catecholamines | | E. | melatonin | | |
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69.
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testosterone
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70.
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secreted by the pineal gland
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71.
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The star of a recent movie was a caterpillar that never matured into an adult.
It simply got larger with each molt. What is the probable reason why the caterpillar did not mature
into an adult?
a. | lack of ecdysone | b. | lack of juvenile hormone | c. | decreased level of
ecdysone | d. | increased level of juvenile hormone | e. | lack of the melatonin
hormone |
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72.
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Synthetic versions of which of the following hormones are being used as
insecticides to prevent insects from maturing into reproducing adults?
a. | ecdysone | b. | juvenile hormone | c. | oxytocin | d. | brain hormone | e. | prothoracic
hormone |
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73.
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What do budding and fragmentation have in common?
a. | Both are types of asexual reproduction. | b. | Both produce large
numbers of offspring. | c. | Both occur in sea stars. | d. | Both involve
meiosis. | e. | A and B only |
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74.
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Why do genetic mutations in asexually reproducing organisms lead to more
evolutionary change than do genetic mutations in sexually reproducing ones?
a. | The haploid mutations of asexually reproducing organisms are passed to all of their
offspring. | b. | Asexually reproducing organisms devote more time and energy to the process of
reproduction. | c. | Sexually reproducing organisms can produce more offspring in a given
time. | d. | More genetic variation is present in organisms that reproduce
asexually. | e. | Asexually reproducing organisms have more dominant genes than organisms that
reproduce sexually. |
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75.
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Which of the following is a form of sexual reproduction?
a. | fragmentation | b. | budding | c. | hermaphroditism | d. | parthenogenesis | e. | fission |
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76.
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Why is sexual reproduction important?
a. | It allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal
conditions. | b. | The resulting diverse phenotypes may enhance survival of a population in a changing
environment. | c. | It can result in numerous offspring in a short amount of time. | d. | It enables isolated
animals to colonize a habitat rapidly. | e. | Both A and D are
important. |
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77.
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Which of the following is not required for internal fertilization?
a. | copulatory organ | b. | sperm receptacle | c. | behavioral
interaction | d. | internal development of the embryo | e. | All of the above are necessary for internal
fertilization. |
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78.
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Internal and external fertilization both
a. | produce a zygote. | b. | occur in vertebrates. | c. | occur only in
terrestrial animals. | d. | A and B only | e. | A and C
only |
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79.
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Which statement about reproduction in invertebrates is incorrect?
a. | Many invertebrates have separate sexes. | b. | Many invertebrates
utilize external fertilization. | c. | A few species split open to release gametes to
the environment. | d. | Some invertebrates have structures that store sperm. | e. | Invertebrates do not
engage in internal fertilization. |
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80.
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A cloaca is an anatomical structure found in many nonmammalian vertebrates,
which functions as
a. | a specialized sperm-transfer device produced by males. | b. | a common exit for
the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems. | c. | a region bordered by the labia minora and
clitoris in females. | d. | a source of nutrients for developing sperm in
the testes. | e. | a gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal
opening. |
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81.
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Which of the following produce testosterone?
a. | sperm cells | b. | hypothalamus | c. | Leydig
cells | d. | anterior pituitary | e. | seminiferous
tubules |
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82.
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After sperm cells are produced, they are mainly stored in the
a. | urethra. | b. | prostate. | c. | epididymis. | d. | seminal vesicles. | e. | bulbourethral
gland. |
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83.
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Which of these does not contribute to the fluids that make up human
semen?
a. | bulbourethral glands | b. | vas deferens | c. | prostate
gland | d. | seminal vesicles | e. | both A and B |
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84.
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Where are human sperm cells produced?
a. | prostate gland | b. | vas deferens | c. | the seminiferous
tubules of the testes | d. | epididymis | e. | Sertoli
cells |
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85.
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What is the narrow opening of the human uterus called?
a. | vagina | b. | cervix | c. | oviduct | d. | fallopian tube | e. | vas
deferens |
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86.
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Which of the following male and female structures consist largely of erectile
tissue richly supplied with nerve endings?
a. | penis and clitoris | b. | vas deferens and oviduct | c. | testes and
ovaries | d. | seminiferous tubules and vagina | e. | prostate and
ovaries |
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87.
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During the human sexual response, vasocongestion
a. | occurs in the clitoris, vagina, and penis. | b. | occurs in the
testes. | c. | can cause vaginal lubrication. | d. | A and B only | e. | A, B, and
C |
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88.
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During sexual arousal, myotonia is to nipple as
a. | orgasm is to resolution. | b. | excitement is to plateau. | c. | estrogen is to the
mammary glands. | d. | vasocongestion is to the penis. | e. | labia minora is to labia
majora. |
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89.
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Which cells are diploid?
a. | spermatids | b. | spermatogonia | c. | mature sperm
cells | d. | A and B only | e. | A, B, and C |
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90.
|
Which of these statements is true about human sperm cells?
a. | They are rich in nutrient material. | b. | They are liberated from the corpus
luteum. | c. | They are less numerous than ova. | d. | They are highly motile. | e. | They have 46
chromosomes. |
|
|
|
91.
|
In vertebrate animals, spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ, in that
a. | oogenesis begins at the onset of sexual maturity. | b. | oogenesis produces
four haploid cells, whereas spermatogenesis produces only one functional
spermatozoon. | c. | oogenesis produces one functional ovum, whereas spermatogenesis produces four
functional spermatozoa. | d. | spermatogenesis begins before
birth. | e. | spermatogenesis is not complete until fertilization
occurs. |
|
|
|
92.
|
Which of these is a male secondary sex characteristic?
a. | development of external reproductive structures | b. | development of vasa
deferentia and other ducts | c. | sperm production | d. | increased muscle
growth | e. | B and C only |
|
|
|
93.
|
How do the estrous and menstrual cycles compare?
a. | Endometrial bleeding occurs during the menstrual cycle; the endometrium is reabsorbed
by the uterus during the estrous cycle. | b. | There are more pronounced behavioral changes
during menstrual cycles than during estrous cycles. | c. | There are stronger effects of season and
climate on menstrual cycles. | d. | Copulation can only occur during the period
surrounding ovulation in both the estrous and menstrual cycles. | e. | The length of both
cycles averages 28 days. |
|
|
|
94.
|
What is the breakdown and discharge of the soft uterine tissues that occurs if
no egg is fertilized?
a. | menstruation | b. | lactation | c. | fertilization | d. | menopause | e. | ovulation |
|
|
|
95.
|
Which of these best describes the menstrual cycle?
a. | It refers specifically to changes that occur in the endometrium of the
uterus. | b. | The cycle length is 28 days and varies little from one woman to
another. | c. | It continues from puberty until death. | d. | It begins with the follicular
phase. | e. | It is primarily regulated by follicle-stimulating hormone
(FSH). |
|
|
|
96.
|
The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle
a. | is associated with dropping levels of estrogen and progesterone. | b. | starts when the
endometrium begins to degenerate. | c. | corresponds with the luteal phase of the
ovarian cycle. | d. | corresponds with the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle. | e. | is the beginning of
the menstrual flow. |
|
|
|
97.
|
What are the three phases of the ovarian cycle?
a. | menstrual, ovulation, and luteal | b. | follicular, luteal, and
secretory | c. | menstrual, proliferative, and secretory | d. | follicular,
ovulation, and luteal | e. | proliferative, luteal, and
ovulation |
|
|
|
98.
|
Inhibition of the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus will
a. | stimulate production of estrogen and progesterone. | b. | initiate
ovulation. | c. | inhibit secretion of gonadotropins from the pituitary. | d. | stimulate secretion
of LH and FSH. | e. | initiate the flow phase of the menstrual cycle. |
|
|
|
99.
|
One function of the corpus luteum is to
a. | nourish and protect the egg cell. | b. | produce prolactin in the
alveoli. | c. | produce progesterone and estrogen. | d. | convert into a hormone-producing follicle after
ovulation. | e. | stimulate ovulation. |
|
|
|
Choose the term from the list below that best fits each description to answer
the following questions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.| A) | LH | | B) | FSH | | C) | ICSH | | D) | GnRH | | E) | estrogen | | |
|
|
|
100.
|
hormone that triggers ovulation
|
|
|
101.
|
hormone secreted by the growing follicle
|
|
|
102.
|
stimulates the corpus luteum in females
|
|
|
103.
|
hypothalamic hormone that stimulates the secretion of gonadotropins by the
anterior pituitary
|
|
|
104.
|
Which of the following hormones is incorrectly paired with its
action?
a. | GnRH-controls release of FSH and LH | b. | estrogen-responsible for primary and secondary
female sex characteristics | c. | human chorionic gonadotropin-maintains
secretions from the corpus luteum | d. | luteinizing hormone-stimulates
ovulation | e. | progesterone-stimulates follicles to develop |
|
|
|
105.
|
The hormone progesterone is produced
a. | by the pituitary and acts directly on the ovary. | b. | in the ovary and
acts directly on the testes. | c. | in the ovary and acts directly on the
uterus. | d. | in the pituitary and acts directly on the uterus. | e. | in the uterus and
acts directly on the pituitary. |
|
|
|
106.
|
What happens if the hormone progesterone is not secreted in a human
female?
a. | Secondary sex characteristics do not develop. | b. | The pituitary is
stimulated to secrete gonadotropins. | c. | Uterine contractions begin stimulating
childbirth. | d. | Enlargement of arteries supplying blood to the endometrium and growth of endometrial
glands do not occur properly. | e. | The ovary begins to form the corpus
luteum. |
|
|
|
107.
|
What causes menopause?
a. | The follicle supply is exhausted. | b. | A decline in production of estrogens by the
ovaries. | c. | Temperature increases inhibit ova maturation. | d. | There is a lack of
adequate blood supply to the ovaries. | e. | Progesterone blocks the ovarian
cycle. |
|
|
|
108.
|
For normal human fertilization to occur,
a. | many ova must be released. | b. | the uterus must be
enlarged. | c. | only one sperm must penetrate the egg. | d. | secretion of pituitary FSH and LH must
decrease. | e. | the secondary oocyte must implant in the uterus. |
|
|
|
109.
|
Fertilization of human eggs usually takes place in the
a. | ovary. | b. | uterus. | c. | vagina. | d. | oviduct. | e. | labia
minora. |
|
|
|
110.
|
During human gestation, organogenesis occurs during the first trimester. What is
the significance of this fact?
a. | It allows for early detection of genetic disorders. | b. | This may block
progesterone production and thus cause a spontaneous abortion. | c. | It may stimulate
infant cardiovascular problems. | d. | Radiation and drugs should be avoided, as the
embryo is extremely sensitive to birth defects at this time. | e. | It may compress the
mother's abdominal organs, causing frequent urination and
constipation. |
|
|
|
Choose the term from the list below that best fits each of the following
descriptions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.| A) | luteinizing hormone
(LH) | | B) | follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) | | C) | progesterone | | D) | human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) | | E) | gonadotropin-releasing hormone
(GnRH) | | |
|
|
|
111.
|
embryonic hormone that maintains progesterone and estrogen secretion by the
corpus luteum through the first trimester of pregnancy
|
|
|
112.
|
triggers ovulation of the secondary oocyte
|
|
|
113.
|
hormone produced by the corpus luteum when stimulated by LH
|
|
|
114.
|
hypothalamic hormone that triggers the secretion of FSH
|
|
|
For the following questions, choose the term from the list below that best
fits each description or statement.| A) | human chorionic gonadotropin | | B) | testosterone | | C) | oxytocin | | D) | prolactin | | E) | progesterone | | |
|
|
|
115.
|
participates in the regulation of labor contractions
|
|
|
116.
|
initiates the growth of the placenta and enlargement of the uterus
|
|
|
117.
|
required so that the corpus luteum can function through the first and part of
the second trimesters of pregnancy
|
|
|
118.
|
Which of these is not a correct statement about human
reproduction?
a. | The ability of a pregnant woman not to reject her "foreign" fetus may be
due to the suppression of the immune response in her uterus. | b. | By the eighth week,
organogenesis is complete and the embryo is referred to as a fetus. | c. | Lactation is the
production and release of milk from the mammary glands. | d. | Parturition begins
with conception and ends with gestation. | e. | Puberty is the onset of reproductive
ability. |
|
|
|
119.
|
Which of the following birth control methods is least effective?
a. | diaphragm | b. | condom | c. | coitus
interruptus | d. | vasectomy | e. | rhythm method |
|
|
|
For the following questions, choose the description from the list below that
best fits each term. Each description may be used once, more than once, or not at
all.
| A. | prevents release
of mature eggs from the ovaries | | B. | prevents fertilization by keeping sperm and egg physically separated by a
barrier | | C. | prevents
implantation of an embryo | | D. | prevents sperm from entering the urethra | | E. | prevents oocytes from traveling into the uterus | | |
|
|
|
120.
|
birth control pill
|
|
|
121.
|
intrauterine device
|
|
|
122.
|
vasectomy
|
|
|
123.
|
How do different contraceptive methods work?
a. | prevent the release of sperm and eggs | b. | keep sperm and eggs
separated | c. | prevent implantation of an embryo | d. | A and B only | e. | A, B, and
C |
|
|
|
124.
|
Which of these statements explains the primary mechanism by which birth control
pills work?
a. | They stop the release of GnRH, FSH, and LH. | b. | They cause a
woman's cervical mucus to change and block sperm from entering the uterus. | c. | They cause
spontaneous abortions. | d. | They block progesterone, thus pregnancy cannot
be maintained. | e. | They prevent uterine implantation by irritating the
endometrium. |
|
|
|
125.
|
Human fertility drugs increase the chance of multiple births, probably because
they
a. | enhance implantation. | b. | stimulate follicle
development. | c. | mimic progesterone. | d. | stimulate spermatogenesis. | e. | prevent
parturition. |
|
|
|
126.
|
Russian nesting dolls, which are a set of smaller dolls packed inside larger
dolls, most resemble which one of the following developmental theories?
a. | epigenesis | b. | preformation | c. | cell
differentiation | d. | morphogenesis | e. | cell theory |
|
|
|
127.
|
A puppy is born with a malformed right leg. A veterinarian studies the animal
and determines that all of the correct types of cells are present, but that the leg simply took on
the wrong shape. This is most likely a problem of
a. | morphogenesis. | b. | cell differentiation. | c. | histogenesis. | d. | preformation. | e. | fertilization. |
|
|
|
128.
|
As an embryo develops, new cells are formed and different types of cells develop
by the process of
a. | differentiation and morphogenesis. | b. | preformation and cell
differentiation. | c. | cell division and differentiation. | d. | preformation and
morphogenesis. | e. | preformation and epigenesis. |
|
|
|
129.
|
Fertilization of an egg without activation is most like
a. | placing the key in the ignition of a car but not starting the
engine. | b. | resting during halftime of a basketball game. | c. | preparing a pie from
scratch and baking it in the oven. | d. | walking to a store and buying some
groceries. | e. | boarding a train in Chicago and riding it to
Philadelphia. |
|
|
|
130.
|
In some rare all-female salamander species, the females require the sperm from
males of another species. However, the developing embryos show no signs of a genetic contribution
from the sperm. In this case, the sperm appear to be used only for
a. | morphogenesis. | b. | epigenesis. | c. | egg
activation. | d. | cell differentiation. | e. | the creation of a diploid
cell. |
|
|
|
131.
|
Which of the following is a function of the acrosome contents during
fertilization?
a. | block polyspermy | b. | help propel the sperm toward the
egg | c. | digest the exterior coats of the egg | d. | nourish the mitochondria of the
sperm | e. | trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm cell |
|
|
|
132.
|
What causes the "slow block" to polyspermy?
a. | a transient voltage change across the membrane | b. | the consumption of
yolk protein | c. | the jelly coat blocking sperm penetration | d. | formation of the
fertilization envelope | e. | inactivation of the sperm
acrosome |
|
|
|
133.
|
Which of the following is least related to the others?
a. | slow block to polyspermy | b. | cortical granules | c. | cortical
reaction | d. | depolarization | e. | fertilization
envelope |
|
|
|
134.
|
Which statement about egg development is true?
a. | Eggs without a nucleus cannot initiate division. | b. | A second messenger
system is activated following fertilization. | c. | The sperm and egg micronuclei have fused by the
end of the cortical reaction. | d. | The contents of the cortical granules
contribute to the fast block to polyspermy. | e. | The mRNA involved with early activation of the
egg arises from the sperm nucleus. |
|
|
|
135.
|
Which of the following statements about fertilization is false?
a. | Fertilization reinstates diploidy. | b. | Fertilization invaginates the blastula to form
the gastrula. | c. | During fertilization, egg cell depolarization initiates the cortical
reaction. | d. | During fertilization, gamete fusion depolarizes the egg cell membrane and sets up a
fast block to polyspermy. | e. | During fertilization, a slow block to
polyspermy occurs when cortical granules erect a fertilization
envelope. |
|
|
|
136.
|
What part of the sperm first contacts the egg plasma membrane?
a. | the vitelline membrane | b. | the cortical granules | c. | the acrosomal
membrane | d. | the actin proteins | e. | the fertilization
membrane |
|
|
|
137.
|
As cleavage continues during frog development, the number of blastomeres
a. | increases as the size of the blastomeres decreases. | b. | increases as the
size of the blastomeres increases. | c. | decreases as the size of the blastomeres
increases. | d. | decreases as the size of the blastomeres decreases. | e. | increases as the
size of the blastomeres stays the same. |
|
|
|
138.
|
Which region of the frog blastula corresponds to the future dorsal side of the
embryo?
a. | morula | b. | primitive streak | c. | archenteron | d. | gray crescent | e. | blastocoel |
|
|
|
139.
|
The yolk of the frog egg
a. | prevents gastrulation. | b. | is concentrated at the animal
pole. | c. | is homogeneously arranged in the egg. | d. | impedes the formation of a primitive
streak. | e. | leads to unequal rates of cleavage for the animal pole compared to the vegetal
pole. |
|
|
|
140.
|
You observe an embryo with meroblastic cleavage, extraembryonic membranes, and a
primitive streak. How would you identify this organism, based on the information given?
a. | insect | b. | fish | c. | amphibian | d. | bird | e. | sea
urchin |
|
|
|
141.
|
Meroblastic cleavage occurs in which of the following? | I. | sea urchins | | II. | humans | | III. | birds | | |
a. | I only | b. | II only | c. | III
only | d. | I and III only | e. | II and III only |
|
|
|
142.
|
Which developmental sequence is correct?
a. | cleavage, blastula, gastrula, morula | b. | cleavage, gastrula, morula,
blastula | c. | cleavage, morula, blastula, gastrula | d. | gastrula, morula, blastula,
cleavage | e. | morula, cleavage, gastrula, blastula |
|
|
|
143.
|
What would be the consequence if gastrulation did not occur?
a. | Cleavage would not occur in the zygote. | b. | Embryonic germ
layers would not form. | c. | Fertilization would be
blocked. | d. | The blastula would not be formed. | e. | The blastopore would form above the gray
crescent in the animal pole. |
|
|
|
Refer to the diagram of the embryo in the figure below to answer the
following questions.
|
|
|
144.
|
The next stage of development for the embryo depicted in the figure above
is
a. | gastrulation. | b. | organogenesis. | c. | blastula
formation. | d. | morula formation. | e. | morphogenesis. |
|
|
|
145.
|
Which of the following will form the lumen of the digestive tract?
|
|
|
146.
|
The blastopore in this organism will become the
a. | anus. | b. | ears. | c. | eyes. | d. | nose. | e. | mouth. |
|
|
|
Refer to the diagram of an embryo in the figure below to answer the following
questions. Match the word or statement to the lettered structures.
|
|
|
147.
|
coelom
|
|
|
148.
|
somite
|
|
|
149.
|
gives rise to the muscles
|
|
|
150.
|
gives rise to the brain and spinal cord
|
|
|
151.
|
The drawing in the figure below is from what stage of amphibian
development?  a. | blastula | b. | neural stage | c. | early
gastrula | d. | late gastrula | e. | gray crescent
stage |
|
|
|
152.
|
Which of the following is mismatched?
a. | mesoderm-notochord | b. | endoderm-lungs | c. | ectoderm-liver | d. | mesoderm-somites | e. | ectoderm-eye |
|
|
|
153.
|
Which of the following is least related to the others?
a. | ectoderm | b. | mesoderm | c. | archenteron | d. | endoderm | e. | germ
layers |
|
|
|
Use the information below to answer the following question.
In a
study of the development of frog embryos, several early gastrulas were stained with vital dyes. The
locations of the dyes after gastrulation were noted. The results are shown in the following
table. | Tissue | Stain | | Brain | red | | Notochord | yellow | | Liver | green | | Lens of the eye | blue | | Lining of the digestive tract | purple | | |
|
|
|
154.
|
Ectoderm would give rise to tissues containing which of the following
colors?
a. | yellow and purple | b. | purple and green | c. | green and
red | d. | red and blue | e. | red and yellow |
|
|
|
155.
|
The primitive streak in a bird is the functional equivalent of
a. | the lip of the blastopore in the frog. | b. | the archenteron in a frog. | c. | polar bodies in a
sea urchin. | d. | the notochord in a mammal. | e. | neural crest cells in a
mammal. |
|
|
|
156.
|
Which of the following is not an extraembryonic membrane that develops
from the embryos of reptiles, birds, and mammals?
a. | chorion | b. | yolk sac | c. | egg
shell | d. | amnion | e. | allantois |
|
|
|
157.
|
Which of the following is least related to the others?
a. | zona pellucida | b. | amnion | c. | chorion | d. | allantois | e. | yolk
sac |
|
|
|
158.
|
A primitive streak forms during the early embryonic development of which of the
following? | I. | birds | | II. | frogs | | III. | humans | | |
a. | I only | b. | II only | c. | III
only | d. | I and III only | e. | II and III only |
|
|
|
159.
|
Extraembryonic membranes develop in which of the following? | I. | mammals | | II. | birds | | III. | lizards | | |
a. | I only | b. | II only | c. | III
only | d. | I and II only | e. | I, II, and III |
|
|
|
160.
|
At the time of implantation, what is the human embryo called?
a. | blastocyst | b. | gastrula | c. | fetus | d. | somite | e. | zygote |
|
|
|
161.
|
In placental mammals, what is the major function of the yolk sac during
development?
a. | It transfers nutrients from the yolk to the embryo. | b. | It differentiates
into the placenta. | c. | It becomes a fluid-filled sac that surrounds
and protects the embryo. | d. | It produces blood cells that then migrate into
the embryo. | e. | It stores waste products from the embryo until the placenta
develops. |
|
|
|
162.
|
Which one of the following plays a major role in gas exchange in a mammalian
embryo?
a. | amnion | b. | hypoblast | c. | chorion | d. | trophoblast | e. | yolk
sac |
|
|
|
163.
|
Changes in the shape of a cell usually involve a reorganization of the
a. | nucleus. | b. | cytoskeleton. | c. | extracellular
matrix. | d. | transport proteins. | e. | none of the
above |
|
|
|
164.
|
The term applied to a morphogenetic process whereby cells extend themselves,
making the mass of cells narrower and longer, is
a. | convergent extension. | b. | induction. | c. | elongational
streaming. | d. | bi-axial elongation. | e. | blastomere
formation. |
|
|
|
165.
|
Which of the following would probably have the greatest effect on
convergent extension?
a. | stopping DNA synthesis | b. | stopping mRNA synthesis | c. | releasing an enzyme
that digests glycoproteins | d. | A and B only | e. | A, B, and
C |
|
|
|
166.
|
Which statement about cell adhesion molecules (CAMs) is false?
a. | They are glycoproteins. | b. | They bind to CAMs on other
cells. | c. | They are all produced by the same gene. | d. | They contribute to
cell migration. | e. | They contribute to stable tissue structure. |
|
|
|
167.
|
If an amphibian zygote is manipulated so that the first cleavage plane does
not divide the gray crescent, what is the expected fate of the two daughter cells?
a. | The daughter cell with the entire gray crescent will die. | b. | Both daughter cells
will develop normally because amphibians are totipotent at this stage. | c. | Only the daughter
cell with the gray crescent will develop normally. | d. | Both daughter cells will develop
abnormally. | e. | Both daughter cells will die immediately. |
|
|
|
168.
|
In humans, identical twins are possible because
a. | of the heterogeneous distribution of cytoplasmic determinants in unfertilized
eggs. | b. | of interactions between extraembryonic cells and the zygote
nucleus. | c. | of convergent extension. | d. | early blastomeres can form a complete embryo if
isolated. | e. | the gray crescent divides the dorsal-ventral axis into new
cells. |
|
|
|
169.
|
Hans Spemann has referred to which of the following structures as the primary
organizer in the early development of amphibian embryos?
a. | optic cup | b. | notochord | c. | neural
tube | d. | dorsal ectoderm | e. | dorsal lip of the
blastopore |
|
|
|
170.
|
The arrangement of organs and tissues in their characteristic places in
three-dimensional space defines
a. | pattern formation. | b. | induction. | c. | differentiation. | d. | determination. | e. | organogenesis. |
|
|
|
171.
|
Which of the following is associated with the evolution of a central nervous
system?
a. | a complete gut | b. | bilateral symmetry | c. | radial
symmetry | d. | a closed circulatory system | e. | excitable
membranes |
|
|
|
172.
|
The general functions of the nervous system include which of the
following? | I. | integration | | II. | motor output | | III. | sensory input | | |
a. | I only | b. | II only | c. | III
only | d. | I and II only | e. | I, II, and III |
|
|
|
173.
|
The blood-brain barrier
a. | is formed by tight junctions. | b. | is formed by
oligodendrocytes. | c. | tightly regulates the intracellular environment
of the CNS. | d. | uses chemical signals to communicate with the spinal cord. | e. | provides support to
the brain tissue. |
|
|
|
174.
|
Which of the following statements is false?
a. | All cells have a membrane potential. | b. | Gray matter is the site of neuronal
integration. | c. | Astrocytes can communicate with nerve cells. | d. | The outside of a
cell is negative with respect to the inside of a cell. | e. | Squid axons are a model system for nerve
conductance. |
|
|
|
175.
|
Neurons at rest are not at the equilibrium potential for K+ because
the cell membrane is
a. | only permeable to K+. | b. | slightly permeable to
Na+. | c. | not permeable to Na+. | d. | not permeable to
K+. | e. | only permeable to Na+. |
|
|
|
176.
|
The sodium-potassium pump of neurons pumps
a. | Na+ and K+ into the cell. | b. | Na+ and
K+ out of the cell. | c. | Na+ into the cell and K+
out of the cell. | d. | Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell. | e. | Na+ and
K+ into the cell and H+ out of the cell through an
antiport. |
|
|
|
Refer to the information below to answer the following
questions.
A previously unknown organism has been discovered. It contains long cells with
excitable membranes that scientists suspect are used for rapid information transfer. The membrane of
the cell is permeable only to ion X, which carries a negative charge. Active transport pumps in the
membrane move X into the cell while simultaneously moving ion Y, also carrying a negative charge, out
of the cell.
|
|
|
177.
|
Which of the following is true about the establishment of the resting
membrane potential in this cell?
a. | The resting potential of this cell will be zero. | b. | The resting
potential of this cell will be negative. | c. | A negative resting potential is directly
produced by the pump moving a negative charge into the cell. | d. | A negative resting
potential is directly produced by the diffusion of Y– into the
cell. | e. | A positive resting potential is directly produced by the diffusion of
X– out of the cell. |
|
|
|
178.
|
When neurotransmitter Z is released into the extracellular fluid in contact with
a portion of the cell membrane, channels open that allow both X– and
Y– through the membrane. Which of the following is incorrect?
a. | The magnitude of the potential will immediately increase. | b. | Y–
will diffuse into the cell. | c. | X– will diffuse out of the
cell. | d. | The membrane will depolarize. | e. | The channels are chemically
gated. |
|
|
|
179.
|
What is the mode of action of a toxin that binds specifically to the
voltage-gated sodium channels of axons?
a. | block all sodium movement | b. | block repolarization | c. | prevent the axon
from reaching the threshold potential | d. | A and B only | e. | A, B, and
C |
|
|
|
180.
|
Repolarization of the membrane of a neuron after an action potential is a
consequence of which of the following? | I. | calcium channels opening | | II. |  channels
inactivating | | III. | K+
channels opening | | |
a. | I only | b. | II only | c. | III
only | d. | I and II only | e. | II and III only |
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181.
|
Action potentials are normally carried in one direction from the axon hillock to
the axon terminals. By using an electronic probe, you experimentally depolarize the middle of the
axon to threshold. What do you expect?
a. | No action potential will be initiated. | b. | An action potential will be initiated and
proceed in the normal direction toward the axon terminal. | c. | An action potential
will be initiated and proceed back toward the axon hillock. | d. | Two action
potentials will be initiated, one going toward the axon terminal and one going back toward the
hillock. | e. | An action potential will be initiated, but it will die out before it reaches the axon
terminal. |
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182.
|
Saltatory conduction is a term applied to conduction of impulses
a. | across electrical synapses. | b. | along the postsynaptic membrane from dendrite
to axon hillock. | c. | in two directions at the same time. | d. | from one neuron to another. | e. | along myelinated
nerve fibers. |
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183.
|
Which animal movement could be used to represent impulse conductance along a
myelinated axon?
a. | a person out on a power walk | b. | an earthworm moving along the surface of the
ground | c. | an amoeba extending pseudopodia | d. | a moth moving toward a
light | e. | a frog leaping between lily pads |
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184.
|
Where do synaptic vesicles discharge their contents by exocytosis?
a. | dendrite | b. | axon hillock | c. | nodes of
Ranvier | d. | postsynaptic membrane | e. | presynaptic
membrane |
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185.
|
Neurotransmitters are released from presynaptic axon terminals into the synaptic
cleft by which mechanism?
a. | osmosis | b. | active transport | c. | diffusion | d. | endocytosis | e. | exocytosis |
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186.
|
Which of the following offers the best description of neural transmission across
a mammalian synaptic gap?
a. | Neural impulses involve the flow of K+ and Na+ across the
gap. | b. | Neural impulses travel across the gap as electrical currents. | c. | Neural impulses
cause the release of chemicals that diffuse across the gap. | d. | Neural impulses
travel across the gap in both directions. | e. | The calcium within the axons and dendrites of
nerves adjacent to a synapse acts as the neurotransmitter. |
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187.
|
One disadvantage to a nerve net is that it can conduct impulses in two
directions from the point of the stimulus. The vertebrate system conducts in only one direction. This
one-way conduction occurs
a. | as a result of the nodes of Ranvier. | b. | as a result of voltage-gated sodium channels
found in the vertebrate system. | c. | because vertebrate nerve cells have
dendrites. | d. | because only the postsynaptic cells can bind neurotransmitters. | e. | because the
sodium-potassium pump moves ions in one direction. |
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188.
|
During an IPSP, the membrane of the postsynaptic cell becomes more permeable
to
a. | K+. | b. | Na+. | c. | Ca2+. | d. | GABA. | e. | serotonin. |
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189.
|
Given the steps shown below, which of the following is the correct sequence for
transmission at a chemical synapse?
1. Neurotransmitter binds with
receptors associated with the postsynaptic membrane.
2. Ca2+ ions
rush into neuron's cytoplasm.
3. Action potential depolarizes
the synaptic terminal membrane.
4. Ligand-gated ion channels
open.
5. Synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter into the
synaptic cleft.
a. | 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 | b. | 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 | c. | 3, 2, 5, 1,
4 | d. | 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 | e. | 5, 1, 2, 4, 3 |
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190.
|
How does an EPSP facilitate depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane?
a. | by increasing the permeability of the membrane to Na+ | b. | by increasing the
permeability of the membrane to K+ | c. | by insulating the hillock region of the
axon | d. | by allowing Cl– to enter the cell | e. | by stimulating the
sodium-potassium pump |
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191.
|
Neurotransmitters categorized as inhibitory would not be expected
to
a. | bind to receptors. | b. | open K+
channels. | c. | open Na+ channels. | d. | open Cl–
channels. | e. | hyperpolarize the membrane. |
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192.
|
A single inhibitory postsynaptic potential has a magnitude of 0.5 mV at the axon
hillock, and a single excitatory postsynaptic potential has a magnitude of 0.5 mV. What will be the
membrane potential at the hillock after the spatial summation of 6 IPSPs and 2 EPSPs, if the initial
membrane potential is -70 mV?
a. | -72 mV | b. | -71 mV | c. | -70
mV | d. | -69 mV | e. | -68 mV |
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|
|
Refer to the terms below to answer the following questions. Each term may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
| A. | meninges | | B. | ganglion | | C. | axon hillocks | | D. | myelin sheaths | | E. | postsynaptic membranes | | |
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193.
|
possess neurotransmitter receptors
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194.
|
Which statement could be applied to both the nervous system and the
endocrine system?
a. | They both use chemical signaling. | b. | The final response depends on the receptor mode
of action. | c. | Specific parts of both systems use chemical messengers produced by
axons. | d. | Only A and B are correct. | e. | A, B, and C are
correct. |
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195.
|
Neurotransmitters affect postsynaptic cells by
a. | initiating signal transduction pathways in the cells. | b. | causing molecular
changes in the cells. | c. | affecting ion-channel
proteins. | d. | altering the permeability of the cells. | e. | all of the
above |
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196.
|
What is the main neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic system?
a. | acetylcholine | b. | cholinesterase | c. | norepinephrine | d. | adrenaline | e. | dopamine |
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197.
|
What is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter of the brain?
a. | acetylcholine | b. | cholinesterase | c. | norepinephrine | d. | dopamine | e. | GABA |
|
|
|
Refer to the following choices of neurotransmitters below to answer the
following questions. Each choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
| A. | acetylcholine | | B. | epinephrine | | C. | endorphin | | D. | serotonin | | E. | GABA | | |
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198.
|
a neuropeptide that functions as a natural analgesic
|
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199.
|
an amino acid that operates at inhibitory synapses in the brain
|
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200.
|
produces hormones that are secreted by the pituitary gland
|
|
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201.
|
coordinates muscle actions
|
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202.
|
regulates body temperature
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|
203.
|
contains regulatory centers for the respiratory and circulatory systems
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|
204.
|
Which statement is true?
a. | Nitric oxide is an example of a neurotransmitter stored in presynaptic
vesicles. | b. | Learning does not appear to require a specific number of neurons. | c. | Organisms with
bilateral symmetry were first to have nerve nets. | d. | Biogenic amines are derived from
proteins. | e. | Serotonin is a neurotransmitter synthesized from
tyrosine. |
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205.
|
The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic actions, or opposing
actions are
a. | motor and sensory. | b. | sympathetic and
parasympathetic. | c. | presynaptic and postsynaptic. | d. | forebrain and hindbrain. | e. | central nervous
system and peripheral nervous system. |
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206.
|
Which part of the vertebrate nervous system is most involved in preparation for
the fight-or-flight response?
a. | sympathetic | b. | somatic | c. | central | d. | visceral | e. | parasympathetic |
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207.
|
Which of the following activities would be associated with the parasympathetic
division of the nervous system?
a. | rest and digestion | b. | release of both acetylcholine and
epinephrine | c. | increased metabolic rate | d. | fight-or-flight response | e. | release of
epinephrine only |
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208.
|
Which of the following is correct about the telencephalon region of the
brain?
a. | It develops as the neural tube differentiates. | b. | It develops from the
midbrain. | c. | It is the brain region most like that of ancestral vertebrates. | d. | It gives rise to the
cerebrum. | e. | It divides further into the metencephalon and
myelencephalon. |
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209.
|
Which area of the brain is most intimately associated with the unconscious
control of respiration and circulation?
a. | thalamus | b. | cerebellum | c. | medulla | d. | corpus callosum | e. | cerebrum |
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210.
|
Which selection is incorrectly paired?
a. | forebrain-diencephalon | b. | forebrain-cerebrum | c. | midbrain-brainstem | d. | midbrain-cerebellum | e. | brainstem-pons |
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|
211.
|
Which of the following statements about the nervous system is
incorrect?
a. | The three evolutionary changes in the vertebrate brain include increases in relative
size, increases in compartmentalization of function, and decreases in
cephalization. | b. | The size of the primary motor and sensory areas of the cortex devoted to controlling
each part of the body is proportional to the importance of that part of the body. | c. | Human emotions are
believed to originate from interactions between the cerebral cortex and the limbic
system. | d. | The localization of pain involves the somatosensory cortex. | e. | The autonomic
nervous system is subdivided into the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous
systems. |
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212.
|
What do Wernicke's and Broca's regions of the brain affect?
a. | olfaction | b. | vision | c. | speech | d. | memory | e. | hearing |
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213.
|
Our understanding of mental illness has been most advanced by discoveries
involving
a. | degree of convolutions in the brain's surface. | b. | evolution of the
telencephalon. | c. | sequence of developmental specialization. | d. | chemicals involved
in brain communications. | e. | nature of the blood-brain
barrier. |
|
|
|
Refer to the figure below to answer the following questions.
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|
|
214.
|
Axons are pushed away from the spinal cord by being repelled by Netrin-1 and
Slit from the floor plate.
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|
|
215.
|
Axons are pulled toward the midline by binding to molecules on the floor
plate.
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|
216.
|
Which of the following is a sensation and not a perception?
a. | seeing the colors in a rainbow | b. | a nerve impulse induced by sugar stimulating
sweet receptors on the tongue | c. | the smell of natural gas escaping from an open
burner on a gas stove | d. | the unique taste of french fries with
cheese | e. | the sound of a fire-truck siren as it passes by your
car |
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|
217.
|
An interoreceptor would detect which of the following stimuli?
a. | a person rolling over in their bed | b. | a drop of water falling from one's face
onto one's arm | c. | feeling the pain associated with a bee
sting | d. | a drop in blood pressure from standing too quickly | e. | A and D
only |
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218.
|
Why are we able to differentiate tastes and smells?
a. | The action potentials initiated by taste receptors are transmitted to a separate
region of the brain than those initiated by receptors for smell. | b. | The sensory region
of the cerebral cortex distinguishes something we taste from something we smell by the difference in
the action potential. | c. | The brain distinguishes between taste, arising
from interoreceptors, from smell arising from exteroreceptors. | d. | Because we are able
to see what we are tasting, the brain uses this information to distinguish taste from
smell. | e. | Taste receptors are able to detect fewer molecules of the stimulus, which means these
receptors will initiate a receptor potential before smell receptors
do. |
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|
|
219.
|
What is the correct sequence of events that would lead to a person hearing a
sound? | 1. |
transmission | | 2. |
transduction | | 3. |
integration | | 4. |
amplification | | |
a. | 1, 2, 3, 4 | b. | 1, 4, 2, 3 | c. | 2, 4, 1,
3 | d. | 3, 1, 2, 4 | e. | 3, 1, 4, 2 |
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|
|
220.
|
Immediately after putting on a shirt, your skin feels itchy. However, the
itching stops after a few minutes and you are unaware that you are wearing a shirt. Why?
a. | Sensory adaptation has occurred. | b. | Accommodation has
increased. | c. | Transduction has increased. | d. | Motor unit recruitment has
decreased. | e. | Receptor amplification has decreased. |
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|
|
221.
|
Which of the following is a good example of sensory adaptation?
a. | olfactory receptors ceasing to produce receptor potentials when triggered by the
smell of the second batch of cookies you are baking | b. | hair cells in the organ of Corti not responding
to high-pitched sounds after you have worked on the same construction job for 30
years | c. | cones in the human eye failing to respond to light in the infrared
range | d. | hair cells in the utricle and saccule responding to a change in orientation when you
bend your neck forward after you have been reading a book | e. | rods in the human
eye responding to mechanical stimulation from a blow to the back of the head so that a flash of light
is perceived |
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|
|
222.
|
Why does your arm feel cold when you reach inside the refrigerator to get a
container of milk?
a. | Circulating levels of prostaglandins increase. | b. | The temperature of
the blood circulating to the arm decreases. | c. | Thermoreceptors send signals to the cerebral
cortex where the change from room temperature to refrigerator temperature is
transduced. | d. | Thermoreceptors in the skin undergo accommodation, which increases their
sensitivity. | e. | Thermoreceptors send signals to the posterior
hypothalamus. |
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|
223.
|
Which of the following receptors is incorrectly paired with the type of energy
it transduces?
a. | mechanoreceptors-sound | b. | electromagnetic
receptors-magnetism | c. | chemoreceptors-solute
concentrations | d. | thermoreceptors-heat | e. | pain
receptors-electricity |
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|
|
224.
|
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
a. | hair cell-mechanoreceptor | b. | muscle
spindle-mechanoreceptor | c. | gustatory
receptor-chemoreceptor | d. | electromagnetic
energy-photoreceptors | e. | motor
neuron-thermoreceptor |
|
|
|
225.
|
What is the structure diagrammed in the figure below?  a. | a neuromast | b. | a statocyst | c. | a taste
bud | d. | an ommatidium | e. | an olfactory
bulb |
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|
|
226.
|
The perceived pitch of a sound depends on
a. | vibrations of the tympanic membrane being transmitted through the
incus. | b. | vibrations of the oval window creating wave formation in the fluid of the vestibular
canal. | c. | the region of the basilar membrane where the signal originated. | d. | A and C
only | e. | A, B, and C |
|
|
|
Refer to the diagram of the ear in the figure below to answer the following
questions.
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|
|
227.
|
Which structure(s) is (are) involved in equalizing the pressure between the ear
and the atmosphere?
a. | 1 and 8 | b. | 5 and 7 | c. | 8 | d. | 9 | e. | 10 |
|
|
|
228.
|
Which number(s) represent(s) the structure or structures involved in
transmitting vibrations to the oval window?
a. | 1, 2, 3, and 4 | b. | 2, 3, and 4 | c. | 3 and
4 | d. | 4 | e. | 5 |
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|
|
229.
|
What are sensillae?
a. | smell receptors in animals with hydrostatic skeletons | b. | mechanoreceptors
that help birds remain oriented during flight | c. | a specific type of hair cell in the human
ear | d. | insect taste receptors found on feet and mouthparts | e. | olfactory hairs
located on insect antennae |
|
|
|
230.
|
Which statement below about taste receptors in humans is
incorrect?
a. | Each type of taste receptor can only be stimulated by a particular type of
substance. | b. | Taste receptors are modified epithelial cells organized into taste
buds. | c. | Depolarization in taste receptors causes the cells to release neurotransmitter onto a
sensory neuron. | d. | There are five categories of taste perceptions associated with taste
receptors. | e. | Transduction in taste receptors occurs by several different
mechanisms. |
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|
|
231.
|
What portion of the brain has neurons that receive action potentials from
chemoreceptor cells in the nose?
a. | gustatory complex | b. | anterior hypothalamus | c. | olfactory
bulb | d. | occipital lobe | e. | posterior
pituitary |
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|
232.
|
What do planarians, insects, and humans have in common?
a. | photopigments, photoreceptors, and associated nerves | b. | the ability to
detect light | c. | the ability to detect light and form an image | d. | A and B
only | e. | A, B, and C |
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|
|
233.
|
Focusing the eye by changing the shape of the lens is called
a. | zooming. | b. | refraction. | c. | conditioning. | d. | habituation. | e. | accommodation. |
|
|
|
234.
|
Which of the following would be affected by damage to the ciliary
muscles?
a. | hearing | b. | dilation of the pupil | c. | extension of the
arm | d. | accommodation | e. | formation of vitreous
humor |
|
|
|
235.
|
It is very difficult to sneak up to a grasshopper and catch it. Why?
a. | They have excellent hearing for detecting predators. | b. | They have compound
eyes with multiple ommatidia. | c. | They have eyes with multiple
fovea. | d. | They have a camera-like eye with multiple fovea. | e. | They have binocular
vision. |
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|
|
236.
|
Which of the following is a correct statement about the cells of the
human retina?
a. | Cone cells can detect color, but rod cells cannot. | b. | Cone cells are more
sensitive to light than rod cells are. | c. | Cone cells, but not rod cells, have a visual
pigment. | d. | Rod cells are most highly concentrated in the center of the
retina. | e. | Rod cells require higher illumination for stimulation than do cone
cells. |
|
|
|
237.
|
The axons of rods and cones synapse with
a. | ganglion cells. | b. | horizontal cells. | c. | amacrine
cells. | d. | bipolar cells. | e. | lateral cells. |
|
|
|
238.
|
Which of the following statements about vision is incorrect?
a. | Perception of visual information takes place in the brain. | b. | Rods contain the
light-absorbing molecule called rhodopsin. | c. | Rods are more light-sensitive than cones and
are responsible for night vision. | d. | The conjunctiva covers the cornea and keeps it
moist. | e. | Visual acuity is sharpest in the fovea because the ganglion cells have a small
receptor field. |
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|
|
239.
|
Which of the following structures is the last one that sensory
information would encounter during visual processing?
a. | ganglion cells | b. | bipolar cells | c. | primary visual
cortex | d. | optic chiasma | e. | lateral geniculate
nuclei |
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|
|
240.
|
If a baseball player is hit in the back of the head, which part of his brain
would be the most likely injured?
a. | the primary visual cortex | b. | the thalamus | c. | the optic
chiasma | d. | the lateral geniculate nuclei | e. | the tectorial
membrane |
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|
|
241.
|
What structural feature(s) contribute(s) most to the diverse adaptations for
animal movement?
a. | sensory system | b. | skeletal system | c. | muscular
system | d. | nervous system | e. | B and C only |
|
|
|
242.
|
What are animals with hydrostatic skeletons able to do that animals with
exoskeletons or internal skeletons cannot do?
a. | elongate | b. | crawl | c. | live in aquatic
environments | d. | grow without replacing their skeleton | e. | A, B, and D |
|
|
|
Use the figure below to answer the following questions.
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|
|
243.
|
The structure pictured in the figure above can be found in which types of
muscles?
a. | skeletal | b. | cardiac | c. | smooth | d. | A and B only | e. | A, B, and
C |
|
|
|
244.
|
Which section consists of both actin and myosin filaments?
|
|
|
245.
|
When an organism dies, its muscles remain in a contracted state termed
"rigor mortis" for a brief period of time. Which of the following most directly contributes
to this phenomenon? There is no
a. | ATP to move cross-bridges. | b. | ATP to break bonds between the thick and thin
filaments. | c. | calcium to bind to troponin. | d. | oxygen supplied to muscle. | e. | glycogen remaining
in the muscles. |
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|
|
246.
|
What is the role of calcium in muscle contractions?
a. | break the cross-bridges as a cofactor in the hydrolysis of ATP | b. | bind to the troponin
complex, which leads to the exposure of the myosin-binding sites | c. | transmit the action
potential across the neuromuscular junction | d. | spread the action potential through the T
tubules | e. | reestablish the polarization of the plasma membrane following an action
potential |
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|
|
247.
|
Which of the following is the correct sequence that occurs during the
excitation and contraction of a muscle cell? | 1. | Tropomyosin shifts and unblocks the cross-bridge binding
sites. | | 2. | Calcium is released and binds to the troponin complex. | | 3. | Transverse tubules depolarize the
sarcoplasmic reticulum. | | 4. | The thin filaments are ratcheted across the thick filaments by the heads of the
myosin molecules using energy from ATP. | | 5. | An action potential in a motor neuron causes the axon to release
acetylcholine, which depolarizes the muscle cell membrane. | | | |
a. | 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 | b. | 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 | c. | 2, 3, 4, 1,
5 | d. | 5, 3, 1, 2, 4 | e. | 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 |
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|
248.
|
Which of the following could you find in the lumen of a transverse
tubule?
a. | extracellular fluid | b. | cytoplasm | c. | actin | d. | myosin | e. | sarcomeres |
|
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|
249.
|
A sustained muscle contraction due to a lack of relaxation between successive
stimuli is called
a. | tonus. | b. | tetanus. | c. | an all-or-none
response. | d. | fatigue. | e. | a spasm. |
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|
|
250.
|
Which of the following could be associated with peristalsis?
a. | hydrostatic skeletons and smooth muscle | b. | hydrostatic
skeletons and movement in earthworms | c. | smooth muscle and contractions along the human
digestive tract causing movement of the contents within | d. | A and C
only | e. | A, B, and C |
|