Name: 
 

Unit 10B Chapters 44-49 Systems


Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 
A marine sea star was mistakenly placed in freshwater and it died. What is the most likely explanation for its death?
a.
The sea star was stressed and needed more time to adapt to new conditions.
b.
The sea star is hypertonic to the freshwater, and it could not osmoregulate.
c.
The osmoregulatory system of the sea star could not handle the change in ionic content presented by the freshwater.
d.
The contractile vacuoles used to regulate water content ruptured in the freshwater.
e.
The cells of the sea star dehydrated and lost the ability to metabolize.
 

 2. 
Organisms categorized as osmoconformers are most likely
a.
terrestrial.
b.
marine.
c.
amphibious.
d.
found in freshwater streams.
e.
found in freshwater lakes.
 

 3. 
All of the following represent adaptations by terrestrial animals to drying conditions except
a.
anhydrobiosis.
b.
salt glands.
c.
efficient kidneys.
d.
impervious surfaces.
e.
increased thirst.
 

 4. 
The digestion and utilization of which nutrient creates the greatest need for osmoregulation by the kidneys?
a.
protein
b.
starch
c.
fat
d.
oil
e.
cellulose
 

 5. 
Which of the molecules shown in the figure below represents urea?

mc005-1.jpg

a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 6. 
Which of the following is true of urea? It is
a.
insoluble in water.
b.
more toxic to human cells than ammonia.
c.
the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans.
d.
the primary nitrogenous waste product of most birds.
e.
the primary nitrogenous waste product of most aquatic invertebrates.
 

 7. 
Which of the following is true of ammonia?
a.
It is soluble in water.
b.
It can be stored as a precipitate.
c.
It has low toxicity relative to urea.
d.
Only A and C are true.
e.
A, B, and C are true.
 

 8. 
Which of the following is not a function of the liver?
a.
storage of glycogen
b.
secretion of urea
c.
production of plasma proteins
d.
removal of glucose from the blood
e.
detoxification of chemical poisons in the blood
 

 9. 
The advantage of excreting wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that
a.
urea can be exchanged for Na+.
b.
urea is less toxic than ammonia.
c.
urea requires more water for excretion than ammonia.
d.
urea does not affect the osmolar gradient.
e.
less nitrogen is removed from the body.
 

 10. 
Which of the following is a nitrogenous waste that requires hardly any water for its excretion?
a.
amino acid
b.
urea
c.
uric acid
d.
ammonia
e.
nitrogen gas
 

 11. 
Which organism(s) has excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules?
a.
earthworms
b.
flatworms
c.
insects
d.
jellyfish
e.
both A and B
 

 12. 
Which of the following excretory systems is partly based on the filtration of fluid under high hydrostatic pressure?
a.
flame-bulb system of flatworms
b.
protonephridia of rotifers
c.
metanephridia of earthworms
d.
Malpighian tubules of insects
e.
kidneys of vertebrates
 

 13. 
The transfer of fluid from the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule
a.
results from active transport.
b.
transfers large molecules as easily as small ones.
c.
is very selective as to which small molecules are transferred.
d.
is mainly a consequence of blood pressure force-filtering the fluid.
e.
usually includes the transfer of red blood cells to the nephron tubule.
 

 14. 
Which part of the vertebrate nephron consists of capillaries?
a.
glomerulus
b.
loop of Henle
c.
distal tubule
d.
Bowman's capsule
e.
collecting duct
 

 15. 
Which of the following normally contains blood?
a.
vasa recta
b.
Bowman's capsule
c.
loop of Henle
d.
proximal tubule
e.
collecting duct
 
 
Refer to the figure below, a diagram of a renal tubule, to answer the following questions.

nar001-1.jpg
 

 16. 
In which region would urine become more concentrated?
a.
I
b.
III
c.
IV
d.
V
e.
VII
 

 17. 
In which region would nutrients be actively transported to the blood?
a.
I
b.
II
c.
IV
d.
V
e.
VI
 

 18. 
Which structure passes urine to the renal pelvis?
a.
loop of Henle
b.
collecting duct
c.
Bowman's capsule
d.
proximal tubule
e.
glomerulus
 

 19. 
Which structure possesses specialized cells called podocytes?
a.
loop of Henle
b.
collecting duct
c.
Bowman's capsule
d.
proximal tubule
e.
glomerulus
 

 20. 
Which structure is the first section of the nephron tubule into which the filtrate enters?
a.
loop of Henle
b.
collecting duct
c.
ureter
d.
proximal tubule
e.
glomerulus
 

 21. 
Which structure descends deep into the renal medulla only in juxtamedullary nephrons?
a.
loop of Henle
b.
collecting duct
c.
Bowman's capsule
d.
proximal convoluted tubule
e.
glomerulus
 

 22. 
All of the following are functions of the mammalian kidney except
a.
water reabsorption.
b.
filtration of blood.
c.
excretion of nitrogenous waste.
d.
regulation of salt balance in the blood.
e.
production of urea as a waste product of protein catabolism.
 

 23. 
Which of the following is not true concerning transport epithelia involved in water balance?
a.
One surface of the epithelium faces the outside environment directly or indirectly.
b.
The epithelium is a semipermeable barrier.
c.
The surface area is small, which prevents excessive water loss.
d.
The epithelium regulates the movement of solutes.
e.
Cells are joined by tight junctions.
 

 24. 
Which one of the following, if present in a urine sample, would likely be caused by trauma?
a.
amino acids
b.
glucose
c.
salts
d.
erythrocytes
e.
vitamins
 

 25. 
A toxin that specifically blocks active transport in the loop of Henle might result in which of the following?
a.
a decrease in the interstitial concentration of NaCl
b.
a decrease in the filtrate concentration ability of the kidney
c.
an increase in the amount of interstitial urea to maintain interstitial osmolarity
d.
A and C only
e.
A, B and C
 

 26. 
Depending on salt intake and water availability, humans can produce urine that is
a.
hyperosmotic to body fluids.
b.
hypoosmotic to body fluids.
c.
isoosmotic to body fluids.
d.
A and B are true.
e.
A, B, and C are true.
 

 27. 
What would account for increased urine production as a result of drinking alcoholic beverages?
a.
increased aldosterone production
b.
increased blood pressure
c.
decreased amount of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d.
increased reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule
e.
the osmoregulator cells of the brain increasing their activity
 

 28. 
Hormones involved in the production of urine include all of the following except
a.
aldosterone.
b.
angiotensin.
c.
ADH.
d.
atrial natriuretic factor.
e.
secretin.
 

 29. 
Which statement is true about marine fishes?
a.
Compared to marine fishes, freshwater fishes have fewer glomeruli.
b.
The kidneys of marine fishes excrete little urine.
c.
Marine fishes lack proximal tubules.
d.
Marine fishes secrete uric acid to conserve water.
e.
Their kidneys produce filtrate at high rates.
 

 30. 
The secretion of hormone A causes a change in the amount of protein X in an organism. If this mechanism works by positive feedback, which of the following statements represents that fact?
a.
An increase in A produces an increase in X.
b.
An increase in X produces a decrease in A.
c.
A decrease in A produces an increase in X.
d.
A and B are correct.
e.
B and C are correct.
 

 31. 
Which of the following is (are) true?
a.
Hormones regulate cellular functions, and negative feedback regulates hormone levels.
b.
The circulating level of a hormone is held constant through a series of positive feedback loops.
c.
Both lipid-soluble hormones and water-soluble hormones bind to intracellular protein receptors.
d.
Only A and D are true.
e.
A, B, and C are true.
 

 32. 
What do nitric oxide and epinephrine have in common?
a.
They both function as neurotransmitters.
b.
They both function as hormones.
c.
They are both involved in the "fight-or-flight" response.
d.
Only A and B are correct.
e.
A, B, and C are correct.
 

 33. 
Substance X is secreted by one cell, travels a short distance through interstitial fluid, and produces an effect in a cell immediately adjacent to the original secreting cell. All of the following terms could describe this substance except
a.
nitric oxide.
b.
neurotransmitter.
c.
prostaglandin.
d.
pheromone.
e.
growth factor.
 

 34. 
Based on their effects, which pair below could be considered antagonistic?
a.
prostaglandin F and nitric oxide
b.
growth hormone and ecdysone
c.
endocrine and exocrine glands
d.
hormones and target cells
e.
neurosecretory cells and neurotransmitters
 

 35. 
Which of the following is a local regulator responsible for activating an enzyme that relaxes smooth muscle cells?
a.
nitric oxide
b.
prostaglandin F
c.
epinephrine
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 36. 
Which of the following examples is incorrectly paired with its class?
a.
histamine-local regulator
b.
estrogen-steroid hormone
c.
prostaglandin-peptide hormone
d.
ecdysone-steroid hormone
e.
neurotransmitter-local regulator
 

 37. 
What is the mode of action of aspirin and ibuprofen?
a.
They inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins.
b.
They inhibit the release of nitric oxide, a potent vasodilator.
c.
They block paracrine signaling pathways.
d.
They stimulate the release of oxytocin.
e.
They stimulate the release of endorphins.
 

 38. 
A cell that contains proteins enabling a hormone to selectively bind to its plasma membrane is called a(n)
a.
secretory cell.
b.
plasma cell.
c.
endocrine cell.
d.
target cell.
e.
regulatory cell.
 

 39. 
Why is it that some body cells respond differently to the same peptide hormones?
a.
Different target cells have different genes.
b.
Each cell knows how it fits into the body's master plan.
c.
A target cell's response is determined by the product of a signal transduction pathway.
d.
The circulatory system regulates responses to hormones by routing the hormones to specific targets.
e.
The hormone is chemically altered in different ways as it travels through the circulatory system.
 

 40. 
Frequently, very few molecules of a hormone are required to affect changes in a target cell. This is because
a.
hormones are lipid-soluble and readily penetrate the membranes of the target cell.
b.
hormones are large molecules that remain in circulation for months and can repeatedly stimulate the same cell.
c.
the mechanism of hormonal action involves an enzyme cascade that amplifies the response to a hormone.
d.
the mechanism of hormonal action involves the rapid replication of the hormone within the target cell.
e.
the mechanism of hormonal action involves memory cells that have had prior contact with the hormone.
 

 41. 
Hormone X produces its effect in its target cells via the cAMP second messenger system. Which of the following will produce the greatest effect in the cell?
a.
a molecule of hormone X applied to the extracellular fluid surrounding the cell
b.
a molecule of hormone X injected into the cytoplasm of the cell
c.
a molecule of cAMP applied to the extracellular fluid surrounding the cell
d.
a molecule of cAMP injected into the cytoplasm of the cell
e.
a molecule of activated, cAMP-dependent protein kinase injected into the cytoplasm of the cell
 

 42. 
Which of the following statements about hormones is correct?
a.
Steroid and peptide hormones produce different effects but use the same biochemical mechanisms.
b.
Steroid and peptide hormones produce the same effects but differ in the mechanisms that produce the effects.
c.
Steroid hormones affect the synthesis of proteins, whereas peptide hormones affect the activity of proteins already present in the cell.
d.
Steroid hormones affect the activity of certain proteins within the cell, whereas peptide hormones directly affect the processing of mRNA.
e.
Steroid hormones affect the synthesis of proteins to be exported from the cell, whereas peptide hormones affect the synthesis of proteins that remain in the cell.
 

 43. 
Hormones from the hypothalamus affect the release of all of the following except
a.
prolactin.
b.
oxytocin.
c.
growth hormone.
d.
thyroid-stimulating hormone.
e.
adrenocorticotropic hormone.
 

 44. 
The endocrine system and the nervous system are structurally related. Which of the following cells best illustrates this relationship?
a.
a neuron in the spinal cord
b.
a steroid-producing cell in the adrenal cortex
c.
a neurosecretory cell in the hypothalamus
d.
a brain cell in the cerebral cortex
e.
a cell in the pancreas that produces digestive enzymes
 

 45. 
The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary by means of
a.
releasing hormones.
b.
second messengers.
c.
third messengers.
d.
antibodies.
e.
pyrogens.
 

 46. 
Short blood vessels connect two capillary beds lying in which of the following?
a.
hypothalamus and thalamus
b.
anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary
c.
hypothalamus and anterior pituitary
d.
posterior pituitary and thyroid gland
e.
anterior pituitary and adrenal gland
 

 47. 
If a person drinks a large amount of water in a short period of time, he or she may die from water toxicity. ADH can help prevent water retention through interaction with target cells in the
a.
anterior pituitary.
b.
posterior pituitary.
c.
adrenal gland.
d.
bladder.
e.
kidney.
 

 48. 
Prolactin stimulates mammary gland growth and development in mammals and regulates salt and water balance in freshwater fish. Many scientists think that this wide range of functions indicates which of the following?
a.
Prolactin is a nonspecific hormone.
b.
Prolactin has a unique mechanism for eliciting its effects.
c.
Prolactin is an evolutionary conserved hormone.
d.
Prolactin is derived from two separate sources.
e.
Prolactin interacts with many different receptor molecules.
 

 49. 
Which of the following have nontropic effects only?
a.
FSH
b.
LH
c.
TSH
d.
MSH
e.
ACTH
 

 50. 
Iodine is added to commercially-prepared table salt to help prevent deficiencies of this essential mineral. Which gland(s) require(s) iodine to function properly?
a.
parathyroids
b.
adrenal
c.
thyroid
d.
pancreas
e.
ovaries and testes
 

 51. 
Tropic hormones from the anterior pituitary directly affect the release of which of the following?
a.
parathyroid hormone
b.
calcitonin
c.
epinephrine
d.
thyroxine
e.
glucagon
 

 52. 
One reason a person might be severely overweight is due to
a.
an undersecretion of thyroxine.
b.
a defect in hormone release from the posterior pituitary.
c.
a lower than normal level of insulin-like growth factors.
d.
hyposecretion of oxytocin.
e.
a higher than normal level of endorphins.
 

 53. 
Which of the following statements about endocrine glands is incorrect?
a.
The parathyroids regulate metabolic rate.
b.
The thyroid participates in blood calcium regulation.
c.
The pituitary participates in the regulation of the gonads.
d.
The adrenal medulla produces "fight-or-flight" responses.
e.
The pancreas helps to regulate blood sugar concentration.
 

 54. 
Which of the following is an endocrine gland?
a.
parathyroid gland
b.
salivary gland
c.
sweat gland
d.
sebaceous gland
e.
gallbladder
 

 55. 
Which of the following glands shows both endocrine and exocrine activity?
a.
pituitary
b.
parathyroid
c.
salivary
d.
pancreas
e.
adrenal
 

 56. 
Blood samples taken from an individual who had been fasting for 24 hours would have which of the following?
a.
high levels of insulin
b.
high levels of glucagon
c.
low levels of insulin
d.
low levels of glucagon
e.
both B and C
 

 57. 
What happens when beta cells of the pancreas release insulin into the blood?
a.
Blood glucose levels rise to a set point and stimulate glucagon release.
b.
Body cells take up more glucose.
c.
The liver breaks down glycogen to glucose.
d.
Alpha cells are stimulated to release glucose into the blood.
e.
Both B and D are correct.
 

 58. 
The endocrine system and the nervous system are chemically related. Which of the following substances best illustrates this relationship?
a.
estrogen
b.
calcitonin
c.
norepinephrine
d.
calcium
e.
ecdysone
 

 59. 
Which of the following glands is controlled directly by the hypothalamus or central nervous system but not the anterior pituitary?
a.
ovary
b.
adrenal medulla
c.
adrenal cortex
d.
testis
e.
thyroid
 

 60. 
If the adrenal cortex were removed, which group of hormones would be most affected?
a.
steroid
b.
peptide
c.
tropic
d.
amino acid-derived
e.
paracrine
 

 61. 
Which of the following statements about the adrenal gland is correct?
a.
During stress, TSH stimulates the adrenal cortex and medulla to secrete acetylcholine.
b.
During stress, the alpha cells of islets secrete insulin and simultaneously the beta cells of the islets secrete glucagon.
c.
During stress, ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex, and neurons of the sympathetic nervous system stimulate the adrenal medulla.
d.
At all times, the anterior portion secretes ACTH, while the posterior portion secretes oxytocin.
e.
At all times, the adrenal gland monitors calcium levels in the blood and regulates calcium by secreting the two antagonistic hormones, epinephrine and norepinephrine.
 
 
The question below refers to the following information.

In an experiment, rats' ovaries were removed immediately after impregnation and then the rats were divided into two groups. Treatments and results are summarized in the table below.

 
Group 1
Group 2
Daily injections of progeterone (milligrams)
0.25
2.0
Percentage of rats that carried fetuses to birth
0
100
 

 62. 
Which of the following hormone sequences is correct?
a.
LH mc062-1.jpg FSH mc062-2.jpg adrenal glands
b.
GnRH mc062-3.jpg FSH mc062-4.jpg ovaries
c.
CRH mc062-5.jpg ACTH mc062-6.jpg FSH mc062-7.jpg thyroid gland
d.
CRH mc062-8.jpg LH mc062-9.jpg testes
e.
GnRH mc062-10.jpg FSH mc062-11.jpg LH mc062-12.jpg pineal gland
 

 63. 
Which combination of gland and hormone would be linked to winter hibernation and spring reproduction in bears?
a.
pineal gland, melatonin
b.
hypothalamus gland, melatonin
c.
anterior pituitary gland, gonadotropin-releasing hormone
d.
pineal gland, estrogen
e.
posterior pituitary gland, thyroid-stimulating hormone
 
 
Refer to the list of hormones below to answer the following questions. Each hormone may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A.ecdysone
B.glucagon
C.thyroxine
D.oxytocin
E.growth hormone
 

 64. 
secreted by the pancreas
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 65. 
stimulates and maintains metabolic processes
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 66. 
stimulates the contraction of uterine muscle
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 67. 
secreted by the anterior pituitary
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 68. 
Which of the following endocrine structures is (are) not controlled by a tropic hormone from the anterior pituitary?
a.
pancreatic islet cells
b.
thyroid gland
c.
adrenal cortex
d.
ovaries
e.
testes
 
 
Refer to the following list of hormones below to answer the following questions. Each hormone may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Aandrogens
B.estrogens
C.progestins
D.catecholamines
E.melatonin
 

 69. 
testosterone
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 70. 
secreted by the pineal gland
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 71. 
The star of a recent movie was a caterpillar that never matured into an adult. It simply got larger with each molt. What is the probable reason why the caterpillar did not mature into an adult?
a.
lack of ecdysone
b.
lack of juvenile hormone
c.
decreased level of ecdysone
d.
increased level of juvenile hormone
e.
lack of the melatonin hormone
 

 72. 
Synthetic versions of which of the following hormones are being used as insecticides to prevent insects from maturing into reproducing adults?
a.
ecdysone
b.
juvenile hormone
c.
oxytocin
d.
brain hormone
e.
prothoracic hormone
 

 73. 
What do budding and fragmentation have in common?
a.
Both are types of asexual reproduction.
b.
Both produce large numbers of offspring.
c.
Both occur in sea stars.
d.
Both involve meiosis.
e.
A and B only
 

 74. 
Why do genetic mutations in asexually reproducing organisms lead to more evolutionary change than do genetic mutations in sexually reproducing ones?
a.
The haploid mutations of asexually reproducing organisms are passed to all of their offspring.
b.
Asexually reproducing organisms devote more time and energy to the process of reproduction.
c.
Sexually reproducing organisms can produce more offspring in a given time.
d.
More genetic variation is present in organisms that reproduce asexually.
e.
Asexually reproducing organisms have more dominant genes than organisms that reproduce sexually.
 

 75. 
Which of the following is a form of sexual reproduction?
a.
fragmentation
b.
budding
c.
hermaphroditism
d.
parthenogenesis
e.
fission
 

 76. 
Why is sexual reproduction important?
a.
It allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal conditions.
b.
The resulting diverse phenotypes may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment.
c.
It can result in numerous offspring in a short amount of time.
d.
It enables isolated animals to colonize a habitat rapidly.
e.
Both A and D are important.
 

 77. 
Which of the following is not required for internal fertilization?
a.
copulatory organ
b.
sperm receptacle
c.
behavioral interaction
d.
internal development of the embryo
e.
All of the above are necessary for internal fertilization.
 

 78. 
Internal and external fertilization both
a.
produce a zygote.
b.
occur in vertebrates.
c.
occur only in terrestrial animals.
d.
A and B only
e.
A and C only
 

 79. 
Which statement about reproduction in invertebrates is incorrect?
a.
Many invertebrates have separate sexes.
b.
Many invertebrates utilize external fertilization.
c.
A few species split open to release gametes to the environment.
d.
Some invertebrates have structures that store sperm.
e.
Invertebrates do not engage in internal fertilization.
 

 80. 
A cloaca is an anatomical structure found in many nonmammalian vertebrates, which functions as
a.
a specialized sperm-transfer device produced by males.
b.
a common exit for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems.
c.
a region bordered by the labia minora and clitoris in females.
d.
a source of nutrients for developing sperm in the testes.
e.
a gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening.
 

 81. 
Which of the following produce testosterone?
a.
sperm cells
b.
hypothalamus
c.
Leydig cells
d.
anterior pituitary
e.
seminiferous tubules
 

 82. 
After sperm cells are produced, they are mainly stored in the
a.
urethra.
b.
prostate.
c.
epididymis.
d.
seminal vesicles.
e.
bulbourethral gland.
 

 83. 
Which of these does not contribute to the fluids that make up human semen?
a.
bulbourethral glands
b.
vas deferens
c.
prostate gland
d.
seminal vesicles
e.
both A and B
 

 84. 
Where are human sperm cells produced?
a.
prostate gland
b.
vas deferens
c.
the seminiferous tubules of the testes
d.
epididymis
e.
Sertoli cells
 

 85. 
What is the narrow opening of the human uterus called?
a.
vagina
b.
cervix
c.
oviduct
d.
fallopian tube
e.
vas deferens
 

 86. 
Which of the following male and female structures consist largely of erectile tissue richly supplied with nerve endings?
a.
penis and clitoris
b.
vas deferens and oviduct
c.
testes and ovaries
d.
seminiferous tubules and vagina
e.
prostate and ovaries
 

 87. 
During the human sexual response, vasocongestion
a.
occurs in the clitoris, vagina, and penis.
b.
occurs in the testes.
c.
can cause vaginal lubrication.
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 88. 
During sexual arousal, myotonia is to nipple as
a.
orgasm is to resolution.
b.
excitement is to plateau.
c.
estrogen is to the mammary glands.
d.
vasocongestion is to the penis.
e.
labia minora is to labia majora.
 

 89. 
Which cells are diploid?
a.
spermatids
b.
spermatogonia
c.
mature sperm cells
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 90. 
Which of these statements is true about human sperm cells?
a.
They are rich in nutrient material.
b.
They are liberated from the corpus luteum.
c.
They are less numerous than ova.
d.
They are highly motile.
e.
They have 46 chromosomes.
 

 91. 
In vertebrate animals, spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ, in that
a.
oogenesis begins at the onset of sexual maturity.
b.
oogenesis produces four haploid cells, whereas spermatogenesis produces only one functional spermatozoon.
c.
oogenesis produces one functional ovum, whereas spermatogenesis produces four functional spermatozoa.
d.
spermatogenesis begins before birth.
e.
spermatogenesis is not complete until fertilization occurs.
 

 92. 
Which of these is a male secondary sex characteristic?
a.
development of external reproductive structures
b.
development of vasa deferentia and other ducts
c.
sperm production
d.
increased muscle growth
e.
B and C only
 

 93. 
How do the estrous and menstrual cycles compare?
a.
Endometrial bleeding occurs during the menstrual cycle; the endometrium is reabsorbed by the uterus during the estrous cycle.
b.
There are more pronounced behavioral changes during menstrual cycles than during estrous cycles.
c.
There are stronger effects of season and climate on menstrual cycles.
d.
Copulation can only occur during the period surrounding ovulation in both the estrous and menstrual cycles.
e.
The length of both cycles averages 28 days.
 

 94. 
What is the breakdown and discharge of the soft uterine tissues that occurs if no egg is fertilized?
a.
menstruation
b.
lactation
c.
fertilization
d.
menopause
e.
ovulation
 

 95. 
Which of these best describes the menstrual cycle?
a.
It refers specifically to changes that occur in the endometrium of the uterus.
b.
The cycle length is 28 days and varies little from one woman to another.
c.
It continues from puberty until death.
d.
It begins with the follicular phase.
e.
It is primarily regulated by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
 

 96. 
The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle
a.
is associated with dropping levels of estrogen and progesterone.
b.
starts when the endometrium begins to degenerate.
c.
corresponds with the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle.
d.
corresponds with the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle.
e.
is the beginning of the menstrual flow.
 

 97. 
What are the three phases of the ovarian cycle?
a.
menstrual, ovulation, and luteal
b.
follicular, luteal, and secretory
c.
menstrual, proliferative, and secretory
d.
follicular, ovulation, and luteal
e.
proliferative, luteal, and ovulation
 

 98. 
Inhibition of the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus will
a.
stimulate production of estrogen and progesterone.
b.
initiate ovulation.
c.
inhibit secretion of gonadotropins from the pituitary.
d.
stimulate secretion of LH and FSH.
e.
initiate the flow phase of the menstrual cycle.
 

 99. 
One function of the corpus luteum is to
a.
nourish and protect the egg cell.
b.
produce prolactin in the alveoli.
c.
produce progesterone and estrogen.
d.
convert into a hormone-producing follicle after ovulation.
e.
stimulate ovulation.
 
 
Choose the term from the list below that best fits each description to answer the following questions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A)LH
B)FSH
C)ICSH
D)GnRH
E)estrogen
 

 100. 
hormone that triggers ovulation
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 101. 
hormone secreted by the growing follicle
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 102. 
stimulates the corpus luteum in females
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 103. 
hypothalamic hormone that stimulates the secretion of gonadotropins by the anterior pituitary
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 104. 
Which of the following hormones is incorrectly paired with its action?
a.
GnRH-controls release of FSH and LH
b.
estrogen-responsible for primary and secondary female sex characteristics
c.
human chorionic gonadotropin-maintains secretions from the corpus luteum
d.
luteinizing hormone-stimulates ovulation
e.
progesterone-stimulates follicles to develop
 

 105. 
The hormone progesterone is produced
a.
by the pituitary and acts directly on the ovary.
b.
in the ovary and acts directly on the testes.
c.
in the ovary and acts directly on the uterus.
d.
in the pituitary and acts directly on the uterus.
e.
in the uterus and acts directly on the pituitary.
 

 106. 
What happens if the hormone progesterone is not secreted in a human female?
a.
Secondary sex characteristics do not develop.
b.
The pituitary is stimulated to secrete gonadotropins.
c.
Uterine contractions begin stimulating childbirth.
d.
Enlargement of arteries supplying blood to the endometrium and growth of endometrial glands do not occur properly.
e.
The ovary begins to form the corpus luteum.
 

 107. 
What causes menopause?
a.
The follicle supply is exhausted.
b.
A decline in production of estrogens by the ovaries.
c.
Temperature increases inhibit ova maturation.
d.
There is a lack of adequate blood supply to the ovaries.
e.
Progesterone blocks the ovarian cycle.
 

 108. 
For normal human fertilization to occur,
a.
many ova must be released.
b.
the uterus must be enlarged.
c.
only one sperm must penetrate the egg.
d.
secretion of pituitary FSH and LH must decrease.
e.
the secondary oocyte must implant in the uterus.
 

 109. 
Fertilization of human eggs usually takes place in the
a.
ovary.
b.
uterus.
c.
vagina.
d.
oviduct.
e.
labia minora.
 

 110. 
During human gestation, organogenesis occurs during the first trimester. What is the significance of this fact?
a.
It allows for early detection of genetic disorders.
b.
This may block progesterone production and thus cause a spontaneous abortion.
c.
It may stimulate infant cardiovascular problems.
d.
Radiation and drugs should be avoided, as the embryo is extremely sensitive to birth defects at this time.
e.
It may compress the mother's abdominal organs, causing frequent urination and constipation.
 
 
Choose the term from the list below that best fits each of the following descriptions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A)luteinizing hormone (LH)
B)follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C)progesterone
D)human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
E)gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
 

 111. 
embryonic hormone that maintains progesterone and estrogen secretion by the corpus luteum through the first trimester of pregnancy
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 112. 
triggers ovulation of the secondary oocyte
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 113. 
hormone produced by the corpus luteum when stimulated by LH
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 114. 
hypothalamic hormone that triggers the secretion of FSH
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 
 
For the following questions, choose the term from the list below that best fits each description or statement.
A)human chorionic gonadotropin
B)testosterone
C)oxytocin
D)prolactin
E)progesterone
 

 115. 
participates in the regulation of labor contractions
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 116. 
initiates the growth of the placenta and enlargement of the uterus
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 117. 
required so that the corpus luteum can function through the first and part of the second trimesters of pregnancy
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 118. 
Which of these is not a correct statement about human reproduction?
a.
The ability of a pregnant woman not to reject her "foreign" fetus may be due to the suppression of the immune response in her uterus.
b.
By the eighth week, organogenesis is complete and the embryo is referred to as a fetus.
c.
Lactation is the production and release of milk from the mammary glands.
d.
Parturition begins with conception and ends with gestation.
e.
Puberty is the onset of reproductive ability.
 

 119. 
Which of the following birth control methods is least effective?
a.
diaphragm
b.
condom
c.
coitus interruptus
d.
vasectomy
e.
rhythm method
 
 
For the following questions, choose the description from the list below that best fits each term. Each description may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A.prevents release of mature eggs from the ovaries
B.prevents fertilization by keeping sperm and egg physically separated by a barrier
C.prevents implantation of an embryo
D.prevents sperm from entering the urethra
E.prevents oocytes from traveling into the uterus
 

 120. 
birth control pill
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 121. 
intrauterine device
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 122. 
vasectomy
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 123. 
How do different contraceptive methods work?
a.
prevent the release of sperm and eggs
b.
keep sperm and eggs separated
c.
prevent implantation of an embryo
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 124. 
Which of these statements explains the primary mechanism by which birth control pills work?
a.
They stop the release of GnRH, FSH, and LH.
b.
They cause a woman's cervical mucus to change and block sperm from entering the uterus.
c.
They cause spontaneous abortions.
d.
They block progesterone, thus pregnancy cannot be maintained.
e.
They prevent uterine implantation by irritating the endometrium.
 

 125. 
Human fertility drugs increase the chance of multiple births, probably because they
a.
enhance implantation.
b.
stimulate follicle development.
c.
mimic progesterone.
d.
stimulate spermatogenesis.
e.
prevent parturition.
 

 126. 
Russian nesting dolls, which are a set of smaller dolls packed inside larger dolls, most resemble which one of the following developmental theories?
a.
epigenesis
b.
preformation
c.
cell differentiation
d.
morphogenesis
e.
cell theory
 

 127. 
A puppy is born with a malformed right leg. A veterinarian studies the animal and determines that all of the correct types of cells are present, but that the leg simply took on the wrong shape. This is most likely a problem of
a.
morphogenesis.
b.
cell differentiation.
c.
histogenesis.
d.
preformation.
e.
fertilization.
 

 128. 
As an embryo develops, new cells are formed and different types of cells develop by the process of
a.
differentiation and morphogenesis.
b.
preformation and cell differentiation.
c.
cell division and differentiation.
d.
preformation and morphogenesis.
e.
preformation and epigenesis.
 

 129. 
Fertilization of an egg without activation is most like
a.
placing the key in the ignition of a car but not starting the engine.
b.
resting during halftime of a basketball game.
c.
preparing a pie from scratch and baking it in the oven.
d.
walking to a store and buying some groceries.
e.
boarding a train in Chicago and riding it to Philadelphia.
 

 130. 
In some rare all-female salamander species, the females require the sperm from males of another species. However, the developing embryos show no signs of a genetic contribution from the sperm. In this case, the sperm appear to be used only for
a.
morphogenesis.
b.
epigenesis.
c.
egg activation.
d.
cell differentiation.
e.
the creation of a diploid cell.
 

 131. 
Which of the following is a function of the acrosome contents during fertilization?
a.
block polyspermy
b.
help propel the sperm toward the egg
c.
digest the exterior coats of the egg
d.
nourish the mitochondria of the sperm
e.
trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm cell
 

 132. 
What causes the "slow block" to polyspermy?
a.
a transient voltage change across the membrane
b.
the consumption of yolk protein
c.
the jelly coat blocking sperm penetration
d.
formation of the fertilization envelope
e.
inactivation of the sperm acrosome
 

 133. 
Which of the following is least related to the others?
a.
slow block to polyspermy
b.
cortical granules
c.
cortical reaction
d.
depolarization
e.
fertilization envelope
 

 134. 
Which statement about egg development is true?
a.
Eggs without a nucleus cannot initiate division.
b.
A second messenger system is activated following fertilization.
c.
The sperm and egg micronuclei have fused by the end of the cortical reaction.
d.
The contents of the cortical granules contribute to the fast block to polyspermy.
e.
The mRNA involved with early activation of the egg arises from the sperm nucleus.
 

 135. 
Which of the following statements about fertilization is false?
a.
Fertilization reinstates diploidy.
b.
Fertilization invaginates the blastula to form the gastrula.
c.
During fertilization, egg cell depolarization initiates the cortical reaction.
d.
During fertilization, gamete fusion depolarizes the egg cell membrane and sets up a fast block to polyspermy.
e.
During fertilization, a slow block to polyspermy occurs when cortical granules erect a fertilization envelope.
 

 136. 
What part of the sperm first contacts the egg plasma membrane?
a.
the vitelline membrane
b.
the cortical granules
c.
the acrosomal membrane
d.
the actin proteins
e.
the fertilization membrane
 

 137. 
As cleavage continues during frog development, the number of blastomeres
a.
increases as the size of the blastomeres decreases.
b.
increases as the size of the blastomeres increases.
c.
decreases as the size of the blastomeres increases.
d.
decreases as the size of the blastomeres decreases.
e.
increases as the size of the blastomeres stays the same.
 

 138. 
Which region of the frog blastula corresponds to the future dorsal side of the embryo?
a.
morula
b.
primitive streak
c.
archenteron
d.
gray crescent
e.
blastocoel
 

 139. 
The yolk of the frog egg
a.
prevents gastrulation.
b.
is concentrated at the animal pole.
c.
is homogeneously arranged in the egg.
d.
impedes the formation of a primitive streak.
e.
leads to unequal rates of cleavage for the animal pole compared to the vegetal pole.
 

 140. 
You observe an embryo with meroblastic cleavage, extraembryonic membranes, and a primitive streak. How would you identify this organism, based on the information given?
a.
insect
b.
fish
c.
amphibian
d.
bird
e.
sea urchin
 

 141. 
Meroblastic cleavage occurs in which of the following?
I.sea urchins
II.humans
III.birds
a.
I only
b.
II only
c.
III only
d.
I and III only
e.
II and III only
 

 142. 
Which developmental sequence is correct?
a.
cleavage, blastula, gastrula, morula
b.
cleavage, gastrula, morula, blastula
c.
cleavage, morula, blastula, gastrula
d.
gastrula, morula, blastula, cleavage
e.
morula, cleavage, gastrula, blastula
 

 143. 
What would be the consequence if gastrulation did not occur?
a.
Cleavage would not occur in the zygote.
b.
Embryonic germ layers would not form.
c.
Fertilization would be blocked.
d.
The blastula would not be formed.
e.
The blastopore would form above the gray crescent in the animal pole.
 
 
Refer to the diagram of the embryo in the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar009-1.jpg
 

 144. 
The next stage of development for the embryo depicted in the figure above is
a.
gastrulation.
b.
organogenesis.
c.
blastula formation.
d.
morula formation.
e.
morphogenesis.
 

 145. 
Which of the following will form the lumen of the digestive tract?
a.
1
b.
4
c.
5
d.
6
e.
7
 

 146. 
The blastopore in this organism will become the
a.
anus.
b.
ears.
c.
eyes.
d.
nose.
e.
mouth.
 
 
Refer to the diagram of an embryo in the figure below to answer the following questions. Match the word or statement to the lettered structures.

nar010-1.jpg
 

 147. 
coelom
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 148. 
somite
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
 

 149. 
gives rise to the muscles
a.
A
b.
B
c.