Unit 1 Chemistry of Life

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Unit 1 Chemistry of Life


Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Which of the following properties or processes do we associate with living things?
a.
evolutionary adaptations
b.
energy processing
c.
responding to the environment
d.
growth and reproduction
e.
all of the above
 

 2. 

Which of the following sequences represents the hierarchy of biological organization from the most to the least complex level?
a.
organelle, cell, organ system, population, community, ecosystem
b.
ecosystem, community, organism, tissue, cell, organelle
c.
biosphere, population, organism, cell, tissue, molecule
d.
biosphere, community, tissue, organ system, molecule, organelle
e.
organism, population, organ system, tissue, molecule, cell
 

 3. 

What is a localized group of organisms that belong to the same species?
a.
biosystem
b.
community
c.
population
d.
ecosystem
e.
organ system
 

 4. 

A maple leaf is at which level in the hierarchy of biological organization?
a.
tissue
b.
cell
c.
organelle
d.
organ
e.
organ system
 

 5. 

In terms of the hierarchical organization of life, a bacterium is at the ____ level of organization, whereas a human is at the ____ level of organization.
a.
single-celled organism; multicellular organism
b.
single organelle; organism
c.
organelle; organ system
d.
single tissue; multicellular organism
e.
tissue; organism
 

 6. 

Which of these is a correct representation of the hierarchy of biological organization from least to most complex?
a.
hydrogen, water, heart muscle cell, heart muscle cell nucleus, heart muscle tissue, heart, human
b.
hydrogen, water, muscle cell nucleus, heart muscle cell, heart, heart muscle tissue, human
c.
hydrogen, water, heart muscle cell nucleus, heart muscle cell, heart muscle tissue, heart, human
d.
water, hydrogen, heart muscle cell nucleus, heart muscle cell, heart muscle tissue, heart, human
e.
heart muscle cell nucleus, hydrogen, water, heart muscle cell, heart, heart muscle tissue, human
 

 7. 

Plants convert the energy of sunlight into
a.
the energy of motion.
b.
carbon dioxide and water.
c.
the potential energy of chemical bonds.
d.
minerals.
e.
kinetic energy.
 

 8. 

What are the basic "building blocks" of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?
a.
100,000 different kinds of proteins
b.
26 different kinds of chromosomes
c.
20 different kinds of amino acids
d.
4 different kinds of nucleotides
e.
3 different kinds of genomes
 

 9. 

In order to understand the chemical basis of inheritance, one must understand the molecular structure of DNA. This is an example of the application of ____ to the study of biology.
a.
evolution
b.
emergent properties
c.
reductionism
d.
the cell theory
e.
feedback regulation
 

 10. 

Once labor begins in childbirth, contractions increase in intensity and frequency until delivery. The increasing labor contractions of childbirth are an example of
a.
a bioinformatic system.
b.
positive feedback.
c.
negative feedback.
d.
feedback inhibition.
e.
both C and D
 

 11. 

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?
a.
a membrane-bounded nucleus
b.
a cell wall made of cellulose
c.
ribosomes
d.
flagella or cilia that contain microtubules
e.
linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein
 

 12. 

What are the two classifications of prokaryotes?
a.
domain Bacteria and domain Eukarya
b.
domain Archaea and kingdom Monera
c.
domain Eukarya and kingdom Monera
d.
domain Bacteria and kingdom Monera
e.
domain Bacteria and domain Archaea
 

 13. 

Species that are in the same ____ are more closely related than species that are only in the same ____.
a.
phylum; class
b.
family; order
c.
class; order
d.
family; genus
e.
kingdom; phylum
 

 14. 

Two species belonging to the same genus must also belong to the same
a.
kingdom.
b.
phylum.
c.
class.
d.
order.
e.
all of the above
 

 15. 

Which of these is reflective of the hierarchical organization of life from most to least inclusive?
a.
kingdom, order, family, phylum, class, genus, species
b.
phylum, class, order, kingdom, family, genus, species
c.
kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
d.
genus, species, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family
e.
class, order, kingdom, phylum, family, genus, species
 

 16. 

A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a single-celled organism that lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification?
a.
domain Eukarya
b.
domain Archaea
c.
kingdom Animalia
d.
kingdom Protista
e.
kingdom Fungi
 

 17. 

A new species has been discovered. Individuals of this species are multicellular eukaryotes that obtain their energy-providing nutrients by ingesting other organisms. How should this species be classified?
a.
kingdom Archaea
b.
kingdom Bacteria
c.
kingdom Plantae
d.
kingdom Protista
e.
kingdom Animalia
 

 18. 

According to Charles Darwin, organisms of a particular species are adapted to their environment when they
a.
possess non-inheritable traits that enhance their survival in the local environment.
b.
possess non-inheritable traits that enhance their reproductive success in the local environment.
c.
possess non-inheritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local environment.
d.
possess inheritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local environment.
e.
possess inheritable traits that decrease their survival and reproductive success in the local environment.
 

 19. 

Which of the following statements is not part of Charles Darwin's concept of natural selection?
a.
Slight inheritable variations within a population may make an individual significantly more or less likely to survive in its environment, and thus to reproduce.
b.
Every organism has the potential to produce more offspring than the local environment can support.
c.
Characteristics of organisms are inherited as genes on chromosomes.
d.
Better adapted members of a species will survive and reproduce more successfully.
e.
Most individuals in a species do not survive to reproduce.
 

 20. 

The method of scientific inquiry that describes natural structures and processes as accurately as possible through careful observation and the analysis of data is known as
a.
hypothesis-based science.
b.
discovery science.
c.
experimental science.
d.
quantitative science.
e.
qualitative science.
 

 21. 

When applying the process of science, which of these is tested?
a.
a question
b.
a result
c.
an observation
d.
a prediction
e.
a hypothesis
 

 22. 

What is the primary reason for including a control group within the design of an experiment?
a.
To ensure that the results obtained are due to a difference in only one variable
b.
To ensure that the experimenter can perform a more complete statistical analysis
c.
To demonstrate in what way the experiment was performed incorrectly
d.
To accumulate additional facts that can be reported to other scientists
e.
To test the effect of more than one variable
 

 23. 

Which of the following is not a theme that unifies biology?
a.
interaction with the environment
b.
emergent properties
c.
evolution
d.
reductionism
e.
structure and function
 

 24. 

About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?
a.
carbon, sodium, chlorine, nitrogen
b.
carbon, sulfur, phosphorus, hydrogen
c.
oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium
d.
carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
e.
carbon, oxygen, sulfur, calcium
 

 25. 

What is the approximate atomic mass of an atom with 16 neutrons, 15 protons, and 15 electrons?
a.
15 daltons
b.
16 daltons
c.
30 daltons
d.
31 daltons
e.
46 daltons
 

 26. 

Calcium has an atomic number of 20 and an atomic mass of 40. Therefore, a calcium atom must have
a.
20 protons.
b.
40 electrons.
c.
40 neutrons.
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 27. 

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described below?

Atom 1
Atom 2
a.
They are isomers.
b.
They are polymers.
c.
They are isotopes.
d.
They contain 1 and 3 protons, respectively.
e.
They each contain 1 neutron.
 
 
Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar001-1.jpg

 

 28. 

Which drawing is of an atom with the atomic number of 6?
a.
Drawing A
b.
Drawing B
c.
Drawing C
d.
Drawing D
e.
Drawing E
 

 29. 

Which drawing depicts an atom with a valence of 2?
a.
Drawing A
b.
Drawing B
c.
Drawing C
d.
Drawing D
e.
Drawing E
 

 30. 

What does the reactivity of an atom depend on?
a.
number of valence shells in the atom
b.
number of orbitals found in the atom
c.
number of electrons in each orbital in the atom
d.
presence of unpaired electrons in the outer valence shell of the atom
e.
presence of hybridized orbitals in the atom
 

 31. 

What are the chemical properties of atoms whose valence shells are filled with electrons?
a.
They form ionic bonds in aqueous solutions.
b.
They form covalent bonds in aqueous solutions.
c.
They are stable and chemically unreactive or inert.
d.
They exhibit similar chemical behaviors.
e.
C and D only
 
 
Use the information extracted from the periodic table in the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar002-1.jpg

 

 32. 

How many electrons does nitrogen have in its valence shell?
a.
2
b.
5
c.
7
d.
8
e.
14
 

 33. 

How many electrons does phosphorus have in its valence shell?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
e.
5
 

 34. 

How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus atom?
a.
8
b.
15
c.
16
d.
31
e.
46
 

 35. 

Fluorine has an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19. How many electrons are needed to complete the valence shell of a fluorine atom?
a.
1
b.
3
c.
5
d.
7
e.
9
 

 36. 

A covalent chemical bond is one in which
a.
electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms become oppositely charged.
b.
protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms.
c.
outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill the outer electron shells of both atoms.
d.
outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to the inner electron shells of another atom.
e.
the inner-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to the outer shell of another atom.
 

 37. 

What is the maximum number of covalent bonds an element with atomic number 8 can make with hydrogen?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
e.
6
 

 38. 

Which of the following molecules contains the strongest polar covalent bond?
a.
H2
b.
O2
c.
CO2
d.
H2O
e.
CH4
 

 39. 

What kind of a bond does NH4+ form with Cl- to make ammonium chloride salt (NH4Cl)?
a.
nonpolar covalent
b.
polar covalent
c.
ionic
d.
hydrogen
e.
C and D only
 

 40. 

Results from a transfer of electron(s) between atoms.
a.
nonpolar covalent bond
b.
polar covalent bond
c.
ionic bond
d.
hydrogen bond
e.
hydrophobic interaction
 

 41. 

Van der Waals interactions result when
a.
hybrid orbitals overlap.
b.
electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule.
c.
molecules held by ionic bonds react with water.
d.
two polar covalent bonds react.
e.
a hydrogen atom loses an electron.
 

 42. 

Which of the following is true for this reaction? 3 H2 + N2 2 NH3
a.
The reaction is nonreversible.
b.
Hydrogen and nitrogen are the reactants of the reverse reaction.
c.
Hydrogen and nitrogen are the products of the forward reaction.
d.
Ammonia is being formed and decomposed.
e.
Hydrogen and nitrogen are being decomposed.
 

 43. 

Which of the following best describes chemical equilibrium?
a.
Forward and reverse reactions continue with no effect on the concentrations of the reactants and products.
b.
Concentrations of products are higher than the concentrations of the reactants.
c.
Forward and reverse reactions have stopped so that the concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products.
d.
Reactions stop only when all reactants have been converted to products.
e.
There are equal concentrations of reactants and products, and the reactions have stopped.
 

 44. 

Which of the following describes any reaction that has attained chemical equilibrium?
a.
The concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products.
b.
The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
c.
All of the reactants have been converted to the products of the reaction.
d.
All of the products have been converted to the reactants of the reaction.
e.
Both the forward and the reverse reactions have stopped with no net effect on the concentration of the reactants and the products.
 

 45. 

An example of a hydrogen bond is the bond between
a.
C and H in methane (CH4).
b.
the H of one water molecule and the O of another water molecule.
c.
Na+and Cl- in salt.
d.
the two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of hydrogen gas (H2).
e.
Mg+and Cl- in MgCl2.
 

 46. 

What determines the cohesiveness of water molecules?
a.
hydrophobic interactions
b.
nonpolar covalent bonds
c.
ionic bonds
d.
hydrogen bonds
e.
both A and C
 

 47. 

Which of the following is possible due to the high surface tension of water?
a.
Lakes don't freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.
b.
A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.
c.
Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions.
d.
Water can act as a solvent.
e.
The pH of water remains exactly neutral.
 

 48. 

The formation of ice during colder weather helps moderate the seasonal transition to winter. This is mainly because
a.
the breaking of hydrogen bonds absorbs heat.
b.
the formation of hydrogen bonds releases heat.
c.
the formation of hydrogen bonds absorbs heat.
d.
there is greater evaporative cooling of lakes.
e.
ice is denser than liquid water.
 

 49. 

At what temperature is water at its densest?
a.
0°C
b.
4°C
c.
32°C
d.
100°C
e.
212°C
 

 50. 

How many molecules of glycerol (C3H8O3) would be present in 1 L of a 1 M glycerol solution?
a.
1
b.
14
c.
92
d.
1 107
e.
6.02 1023
 

 51. 

Recall that when sodium chloride (NaCl) is placed in water the component atoms of the NaCl crystal dissociate into individual sodium ions (Na+) and chloride ions (Cl-). In contrast, the atoms of covalently bonded molecules (e.g, glucose, sucrose, glycerol) do not generally dissociate when placed in aqueous solution. Which of the following solutions would be expected to contain the greatest concentration of particles (molecules or ions)?
a.
0.5 M NaCl
b.
0.5 M glucose
c.
1.0 M NaCl
d.
1.0 M glucose
e.
1.0 M MgCl2
 
 
Use the figure below to answer the following questions:

nar003-1.jpg

 

 52. 

How many grams of the molecule in the figure above would be required to make 1 L of a 0.5 M solution of the molecule?
(Carbon = 12, Oxygen = 16, Hydrogen = 1)
a.
29
b.
30
c.
60
d.
150
e.
342
 

 53. 

How many grams of the molecule in the figure above would be required to make 2.5 L of a 1 M solution of the molecule?
(Carbon = 12, Oxygen = 16, Hydrogen = 1)
a.
29
b.
30
c.
60
d.
150
e.
342
 

 54. 

Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong acid?
a.
NaOH
b.
HCl
c.
NH3
d.
H2CO3
e.
CH3COOH
 

 55. 

A given solution contains 0.0001(10-4) moles of hydrogen ions [H+] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution?
a.
acidic: H+ acceptor
b.
basic: H+ acceptor
c.
acidic: H+ donor
d.
basic: H+ donor
e.
neutral
 

 56. 

What would be the pH of a solution with a hydroxide ion [OH-] concentration of 10-12 M?
a.
pH 2
b.
pH 4
c.
pH 10
d.
pH 12
e.
pH 14
 

 57. 

What would be the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion [H+] concentration of 10-8 M?
a.
pH 2
b.
pH 4
c.
pH 6
d.
pH 8
e.
pH 10
 

 58. 

Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydroxide ions [OH-]?
a.
lemon juice at pH 2
b.
vinegar at pH 3
c.
tomato juice at pH 4
d.
urine at pH 6
e.
seawater at pH 8
 

 59. 

If the pH of a solution is increased from pH 5 to pH 7, it means that the
a.
concentration of H+ is 2 times greater than what it was at pH 5.
b.
concentration of H+ is 2 times less than what it was at pH 5.
c.
concentration of OH- is 100 times greater than what it was at pH 5.
d.
concentration of OH- is 100 times less than what it was at pH 5.
e.
concentration of H+ is 100 times greater and the concentration of OH- is 100 times less than what they were at pH 5.
 

 60. 

Organic chemistry is a science based on the study of
a.
functional groups.
b.
vital forces interacting with matter.
c.
carbon compounds.
d.
water and its interaction with other kinds of molecules.
e.
inorganic compounds.
 

 61. 

What type(s) of bond(s) does carbon have a tendency to form?
a.
ionic
b.
hydrogen
c.
covalent
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 62. 

Which of the following is (are) true about the carbon atoms present in all organic molecules?
a.
They were incorporated into organic molecules by plants.
b.
They were processed into sugars through photosynthesis.
c.
They are ultimately derived from carbon dioxide.
d.
Only A and C are correct.
e.
A, B, and C are correct.
 

 63. 

The two molecules shown in the following figure are best described as

mc063-1.jpg

a.
optical isomers.
b.
radioactive isotopes.
c.
structural isomers.
d.
nonradioactive isotopes.
e.
geometric isomers.
 

 64. 

Which of the following is true of geometric isomers?
a.
They have variations in arrangement around a double bond.
b.
They have an asymmetric carbon that makes them mirror images.
c.
They have the same chemical properties.
d.
They have different molecular formulas.
e.
Their atoms and bonds are arranged in different sequences.
 

 65. 

Which of the following contains nitrogen in addition to carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen?
a.
an alcohol such as ethanol
b.
a monosaccharide such as glucose
c.
a steroid such as testosterone
d.
an amino acid such as glycine
e.
a hydrocarbon such as benzene
 

 66. 

Which of the following is a false statement concerning amino groups?
a.
They are basic in pH.
b.
They are found in amino acids.
c.
They contain nitrogen.
d.
They are nonpolar.
e.
They are components of urea.
 

 67. 

A chemist wishes to make an organic molecule less acidic. Which of the following functional groups should be added to the molecule in order to do so?
a.
carboxyl
b.
sulfhydryl
c.
hydroxyl
d.
amino
e.
phosphate
 
 
Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar004-1.jpg

 

 68. 

Which is an amino functional group?
a.
Group A
b.
Group B
c.
Group C
d.
Group D
e.
Group E
 

 69. 

Which molecule has a carbonyl functional group in the form of an aldehyde?
a.
Molecule A
b.
Molecule B
c.
Molecule C
d.
Molecule D
e.
Molecule E
 

 70. 

Which molecule can increase the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution and is therefore an organic acid?
a.
Molecule A
b.
Molecule B
c.
Molecule C
d.
Molecule D
e.
Molecule E
 
 
Use the molecules shown in the figure below to answer the following questions..

nar005-1.jpg

 

 71. 

Which molecule contains an amino functional group, but is not an amino acid?
a.
Molecule A
b.
Molecule B
c.
Molecule C
d.
Molecule D
e.
Molecule E
 

 72. 

Which molecule is a thiol?
a.
Molecule A
b.
Molecule B
c.
Molecule C
d.
Molecule D
e.
Molecule E
 

 73. 

Which molecule is an organic phosphate?
a.
Molecule A
b.
Molecule B
c.
Molecule C
d.
Molecule D
e.
Molecule E
 

 74. 

Which of the following statements is (are) true about the phosphate ion?
a.
It is negatively charged.
b.
It has acid properties.
c.
It is hydrophobic.
d.
Only A and B are true.
e.
A, B, and C are true.
 

 75. 

Which of the following is not one of the four major groups of macromolecules found in living organisms?
a.
glucose
b.
carbohydrates
c.
lipids
d.
proteins
e.
nucleic acids
 

 76. 

Polymers of polysaccharides, fats, and proteins are all synthesized from monomers by which process?
a.
connecting monosaccharides together (condensation reactions)
b.
the addition of water to each monomer (hydrolysis)
c.
the removal of water (dehydration reactions)
d.
ionic bonding of the monomers
e.
the formation of disulfide bridges between monomers
 

 77. 

Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
a.
Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis breaks down polymers.
b.
Hydrolysis only occurs in the urinary system, and dehydration reactions only occur in the digestive tract.
c.
Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
d.
Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down polymers.
e.
A and C are correct.
 

 78. 

If 128 molecules of the general type shown in the figure below were covalently joined together in sequence, the single molecule that would result would be a

mc078-1.jpg

a.
polysaccharide.
b.
polypeptide.
c.
polyunsaturated lipid.
d.
monosaccharide.
e.
disaccharide.
 

 79. 

Which of the following is true of both starch and cellulose?
a.
They are both polymers of glucose.
b.
They are geometric isomers of each other.
c.
They can both be digested by humans.
d.
They are both used for energy storage in plants.
e.
They are both structural components of the plant cell wall.
 

 80. 

The 20 different amino acids found in polypeptides exhibit different chemical and physical properties because of different
a.
carboxyl groups attached to an alpha carbon
b.
amino groups attached to an alpha carbon
c.
side chains (R groups).
d.
alpha carbons.
e.
asymmetric carbons.
 

 81. 

Upon chemical analysis, a particular protein was found to contain 556 amino acids. How many peptide bonds are present in this protein?
a.
139
b.
554
c.
555
d.
556
e.
558
 
 
Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

nar006-1.jpg

 

 82. 

Which bond is closest to the C-terminus of the molecule?
a.
Bond A
b.
Bond B
c.
Bond C
d.
Bond D
e.
Bond E
 

 83. 

The figure below shows the

mc083-1.jpg

a.
1-4 linkage of the glucose monomers of starch.
b.
1-4 linkage of the glucose monomers of cellulose.
c.
double helical structure of a DNA molecule.
d.
helix secondary structure of a polypeptide.
e.
pleated sheet secondary structure of a polypeptide.
 

 84. 

A strong covalent bond between amino acids that functions in maintaining a polypeptide's specific three-dimensional shape is a (an)
a.
ionic bond.
b.
hydrophobic interaction.
c.
van der Waals interaction.
d.
disulfide bond.
e.
hydrogen bond.
 

 85. 

At which level of protein structure are interactions between the side chains (R groups. most important?
a.
primary
b.
secondary
c.
tertiary
d.
quaternary
e.
all of the above
 

 86. 

The globular protein transthyretin results from the aggregation of four polypeptide subunits. Each of the subunits is a polypeptide chain with an helix region. Which structure(s) must the transthyretin protein have?
a.
primary structure
b.
primary and secondary structure
c.
primary, secondary, and tertiary structure
d.
primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure
e.
primary, secondary, tertiary, quaternary, and alpha structure
 

 87. 

What is the term used for a change in a protein's three-dimensional shape or conformation due to disruption of hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, or ionic bonds?
a.
hydrolysis
b.
stabilization
c.
destabilization
d.
renaturation
e.
denaturation
 

 88. 

Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides?
a.
a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
b.
a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar
c.
a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar
d.
a phosphate group and an adenine or uracil
e.
a pentose sugar and a purine or pyrimidine
 

 89. 

Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the purine type?
a.
cytosine and guanine
b.
guanine and adenine
c.
adenine and thymine
d.
thymine and uracil
e.
uracil and cytosine
 

 90. 

The difference between the sugar in DNA and the sugar in RNA is that the sugar in DNA
a.
is a six-carbon sugar and the sugar in RNA is a five-carbon sugar.
b.
can form a double-stranded molecule.
c.
has a six-membered ring of carbon and nitrogen atoms.
d.
can attach to a phosphate.
e.
contains one less oxygen atom.
 

 91. 

In the double helix structure of nucleic acids, cytosine hydrogen bonds to
a.
deoxyribose.
b.
ribose.
c.
adenine.
d.
thymine.
e.
guanine.
 

 92. 

The two strands making up the DNA double helix molecule
a.
cannot be separated.
b.
contain ribose and deoxyribose in opposite strands.
c.
are held together by hydrogen bonds.
d.
are attached through a phosphate to hold the strands together.
e.
contain uracil but not thymine.
 

 93. 

If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5'ATTGCA3', the other complementary strand would have the sequence
a.
5'TAACGT3'.
b.
3'TAACGT5'.
c.
5'UAACGU3'.
d.
3'UAACGU5'.
e.
5'UGCAAU3'.
 

 94. 

Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis?
a.
the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a disaccharide with the release of water
b.
the synthesis of two amino acids, forming a peptide with the release of water
c.
the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the release of water
d.
the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the utilization of water
e.
the synthesis of a nucleotide from a phosphate, a pentose sugar, and a nitrogenous base with the production of a molecule of water
 

 95. 

Large organic molecules are usually assembled by polymerization of a few kinds of simple subunits. Which of the following is an exception to this statement?
a.
a steroid
b.
cellulose
c.
DNA
d.
an enzyme
e.
a contractile protein
 
 
The following questions are based on the 15 molecules illustrated below. Each molecule may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

nar007-1.jpg

 

 96. 

Which of the following molecules contain(s) an aldehyde type of carbonyl functional group?
a.
1
b.
4
c.
8
d.
10
e.
1 and 4
 

 97. 

Which of the following molecules is a purine type of nitrogenous base?
a.
2
b.
3
c.
5
d.
12
e.
13
 

 98. 

Which of the following molecules act as building blocks (monomers) of polypeptides?
a.
1, 4, and 6
b.
2, 7, and 8
c.
7, 8, and 13
d.
11, 12, and 13
e.
12, 13, and 15
 

 99. 

Which of the following molecules contains a glycosidic linkage type of covalent bond?
a.
4
b.
6
c.
12
d.
13
e.
15
 

 100. 

Which of the following statements is false?
a.
1 and 4 could be joined together by a glycosidic linkage to form a disaccharide.
b.
9 and 10 could be joined together by ester bonds to form a triacylglycerol.
c.
2 and 7 could be joined together to form a short peptide.
d.
2, 7, and 8 could be joined together to form a short peptide.
e.
14 and 15 could be joined together to form a polypeptide.
 


 
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