Name: 
 

Unit 9A Intro to Animals & Invertebrates



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Most animals exhibit the following structures or functions except
a.
nervous and muscle tissue.
b.
unique types of intercellular junctions, such as tight junctions and gap junctions.
c.
autotrophic nutrition.
d.
sexual reproduction.
e.
multicellularity.
 

 2. 

Which of the following terms or structures is not associated with animals?
a.
eukaryotic
b.
cell wall
c.
desmosome
d.
zygote
e.
blastula
 

 3. 

A researcher is trying to construct a molecular-based phylogeny of the entire animal kingdom. Assuming that none of the following genes is absolutely conserved, which of the following would be the best choice on which to base the phylogeny?
a.
genes involved in chitin synthesis
b.
collagen genes
c.
crystallin genes
d.
myosin genes
e.
globin genes
 

 4. 

Both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. What distinguishes animal heterotrophy from fungal heterotrophy is that only animals derive their nutrition
a.
from organic matter.
b.
by preying on animals.
c.
by ingesting it.
d.
by consuming living, rather than dead, prey.
e.
by using enzymes to digest their food.
 

 5. 

The young of some insects are merely small versions of the adult, whereas the larvae of other insects look completely different from adults, eat different foods, and may live in different habitats. Which of the following most directly favors the evolution of the latter more radical kind of metamorphosis?
a.
natural selection of sexually immature forms of insects
b.
changes in the homeobox genes governing early development
c.
the evolution of meiosis
d.
B and C only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 6. 

What is the correct sequence of the following four events during an animal's development?

1.
gastrulation
2.
metamorphosis
3.
fertilization
4.
cleavage
a.
4, 3, 2, 1
b.
4, 3, 1, 2
c.
3, 2, 4, 1
d.
3, 4, 2, 1
e.
3, 4, 1, 2
 

 7. 

At which stage would one be able to first distinguish a diploblastic embryo from a triploblastic embryo?
a.
fertilization
b.
cleavage
c.
gastrulation
d.
organogenesis
e.
metamorphosis
 

 8. 

Which of the following is not unique to animals?
a.
cells that have tight junctions, desmosomes, or gap junctions
b.
the structural protein collagen
c.
nervous conduction and muscular movement
d.
regulatory genes called Hox genes
e.
sexual reproduction
 

 9. 

The number of legs an insect has, or the number of vertebrae in a vertebral column, or the number of joints in a digit (such as a finger) are all strongly influenced by ____ genes.
a.
haploid
b.
introns within
c.
heterotic
d.
heterogeneous
e.
Hox
 

 10. 

What may have occurred to prevent species that are of the same grade from also belonging to the same clade?
a.
similar structures arising independently in different lineages
b.
convergent evolution among different lineages
c.
adaptation by different lineages to the same selective pressures
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 11. 

The Hox genes came to regulate each of the following in what sequence, from earliest to most recent?

1.
identity and position of paired appendages in protostome embryos
2.
formation of channels in sponges
3.
anterior-posterior orientation of segments in protostome embryos
4.
positioning of tentacles in cnidarians
5.
anterior-posterior orientation of somites in vertebrate embryos
a.
4, 1, 3, 2, 5
b.
4, 2, 3, 1, 5
c.
4, 2, 5, 3, 1
d.
2, 4, 5, 3, 1
e.
2, 4, 3, 1, 5
 

 12. 

Almost all of the major animal body plans seen today appeared in the fossil record over 500 million years ago at the beginning of the
a.
Cambrian period.
b.
Ediacaran period.
c.
Permian period.
d.
Carboniferous period.
e.
Cretaceous period.
 

 13. 

Evidence of which structure or characteristic would be most surprising to find among fossils of the Ediacaran fauna?
a.
true tissues
b.
mineralized hard parts
c.
bilateral symmetry
d.
cephalization
e.
embryos
 

 14. 

Which statement is most consistent with the hypothesis that the Cambrian explosion was caused by the rise of predator-prey relationships?
a.
increased incidence of worm burrows in the fossil record
b.
increased incidence of larger animals in the fossil record
c.
increased incidence of organic material in the fossil record
d.
increased incidence of fern galls in the fossil record
e.
increased incidence of hard parts in the fossil record
 

 15. 

Which of these genetic processes may be most helpful in accounting for the Cambrian explosion?
a.
binary fission
b.
mitosis
c.
random segregation
d.
gene duplication
e.
chromosomal condensation
 

 16. 

Whatever its ultimate cause(s), the Cambrian explosion is a prime example of
a.
anagenesis (phyletic evolution).
b.
evolutionary stasis.
c.
adaptive radiation.
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 17. 

Fossil evidence indicates that the following events occurred in what sequence, from earliest to most recent?

1.
Protostomes invade terrestrial environments.
2.
Cambrian explosion occurs.
3.
Deuterostomes invade terrestrial environments.
4.
Vertebrates become top predators in the seas.
a.
2, 4, 3, 1
b.
2, 1, 4, 3
c.
2, 4, 1, 3
d.
2, 3, 1, 4
e.
2, 1, 3, 4
 

 18. 

If one encounters the deepest stratum in which aquatic and flying reptiles can be found, then one has likely found a stratum that was laid during which era?
a.
Mesozoic
b.
Paleozoic
c.
Cenozoic
d.
Neoproterozoic
e.
Precambrian
 

 19. 

What is the probable sequence in which the following clades of animals originated, from earliest to most recent?

1.
tetrapods
2.
vertebrates
3.
deuterostomes
4.
amniotes
5.
bilaterians
a.
5, 3, 2, 4, 1
b.
5, 3, 2, 1, 4
c.
5, 3, 4, 2, 1
d.
3, 5, 4, 2, 1
e.
3, 5, 2, 1,4
 

 20. 

During which era did the greatest radiation of mammals occur?
a.
Mesozoic
b.
Paleozoic
c.
Cenozoic
d.
Neoproterozoic
e.
Precambrian
 

 21. 

The major branches of Eumetazoa are the Radiata and the Bilateria. These names refer to what characteristic of these animals?
a.
size
b.
body symmetry
c.
embryonic cleavage
d.
types of appendages
e.
presence or absence of a nucleus in their cells
 

 22. 

Organisms showing radial symmetry would likely
a.
be good swimmers.
b.
have rapid escape behavior.
c.
move from place to place relatively slowly, if at all.
d.
be able to fly.
e.
have many fins.
 

 23. 

During metamorphosis, echinoderms undergo a transformation from motile larvae to a sedentary (and sometimes sessile) existence as adults. What is true of adults, but not of larvae? Adults should
a.
be diploblastic.
b.
have radial symmetry.
c.
lack mesodermally derived tissues.
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 24. 

Cephalization is primarily associated with
a.
adaptation to dark environments.
b.
method of reproduction.
c.
fate of the blastopore.
d.
type of digestive system.
e.
bilateral symmetry.
 

 25. 

Cephalization is generally associated with all of the following except
a.
bilateral symmetry.
b.
concentration of sensory structures at the anterior end.
c.
a brain.
d.
a longitudinal nerve cord.
e.
a sessile existence.
 

 26. 

Which of the following is an incorrect association of an animal germ layer with the tissues or organs to which it gives rise?
a.
ectoderm-outer covering
b.
endoderm-internal lining of digestive tract
c.
mesoderm-nervous system
d.
mesoderm-muscle
e.
endoderm-internal linings of liver and lungs
 

 27. 

You are trying to identify an organism. It is an animal, but it does not have nerve or muscle tissue. It is neither diploblastic nor triploblastic. It is probably a
a.
flatworm.
b.
jelly.
c.
comb jelly.
d.
sponge.
e.
nematode.
 
 
The figure below shows a chart of the animal kingdom set up as a modified phylogenetic tree. Use the diagram to answer the following questions.

ap_unit9a_invertebr_files/i0290000.jpg
 

 28. 

Which group contains diploblastic organisms?
a.
I
b.
II
c.
III
d.
IV
e.
V
 

 29. 

Which group consists of deuterostomes?
a.
I
b.
II
c.
III
d.
IV
e.
V
 

 30. 

Which group includes both ecdysozoans and lophotrochozoans?
a.
I
b.
II
c.
III
d.
IV
e.
V
 

 31. 

Which two groups are most clearly represented in the Ediacaran fauna?
a.
I and II
b.
I and III
c.
II and IV
d.
II and V
e.
IV and V
 

 32. 

Which of these is the basal group of the Eumetazoa?
a.
I
b.
II
c.
III
d.
IV
e.
V
 

 33. 

Which two groups have members that undergo ecdysis?
a.
I and II
b.
II and III
c.
III and IV
d.
III and V
e.
IV and V
 

 34. 

Organisms that are neither coelomate nor pseudocoelomate should, apart from their digestive systems, have bodies that
a.
are solid with tissue.
b.
lack the ability to metabolize food.
c.
are incapable of muscular contraction.
d.
lack true tissues.
e.
lack mesodermally derived tissues.
 

 35. 

What distinguishes a coelomate animal from a pseudocoelomate animal is that coelomates
a.
have a body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have a solid body.
b.
contain tissues derived from mesoderm, whereas pseudocoelomates have no such tissue.
c.
have a body cavity completely lined by mesodermal tissue, whereas pseudocoelomates do not.
d.
have a complete digestive system with mouth and anus, whereas pseudocoelomates have a digestive tract with only one opening.
e.
have a gut that lacks suspension within the body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have mesenteries that hold the digestive system in place.
 

 36. 

Which of the following functions is an advantage of a fluid-filled body cavity?
a.
Internal organs are cushioned and protected from injury.
b.
Organs can grow and move independently of the outer body wall.
c.
The cavity acts as a hydrostatic skeleton.
d.
A and C only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 37. 

You have before you a living organism, which you examine carefully. Which of the following should convince you that the organism is an acoelomate?
a.
It responds to food by moving toward it.
b.
It is triploblastic.
c.
It has bilateral symmetry.
d.
It possesses sensory structures at its anterior end.
e.
Muscular activity of its digestive system distorts the body wall.
 

 38. 

An animal that swims rapidly in search of prey that it captures using visual senses concentrated at its anterior end is likely to be all of the following except
a.
bilaterally symmetrical.
b.
coelomate.
c.
eumetazoan.
d.
diploblastic.
e.
cephalized.
 

 39. 

The blastopore is a structure that is evident in the
a.
zygote.
b.
blastula.
c.
eight-cell embryo.
d.
gastrula.
e.
egg and sperm.
 

 40. 

The blastopore denotes the presence of an endoderm-lined cavity in the developing embryo, a cavity that is known as the
a.
archenteron.
b.
blastula.
c.
coelom.
d.
germ layer.
e.
blastocoel.
 

 41. 

Which of the following is descriptive of protostomes?
a.
spiral and indeterminate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth, schizocoelous development
b.
spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth, schizocoelous development
c.
spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes anus, enterocoelous development
d.
radial and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes anus, enterocoelous development
e.
radial and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth, schizocoelous development
 

 42. 

Which of the following characteristics generally applies to protostome development?
a.
radial cleavage
b.
determinate cleavage
c.
enterocoelous
d.
blastopore becomes the anus
e.
archenteron absent
 

 43. 

Protostome characteristics include all of the following except
a.
a mouth that develops from the blastopore.
b.
schizocoelous development.
c.
spiral cleavage.
d.
indeterminate cleavage.
e.
solid masses of mesodermal tissue that split and form the body cavity.
 
 
Use the information below to answer the following questions.

A student encounters an animal embryo at the eight-cell stage. The four smaller cells that comprise one hemisphere of the embryo seem to be rotated 45 degrees and lie in the grooves between larger, underlying cells (spiral cleavage).
 

 44. 

This embryo may potentially develop into any one of these organisms except
a.
a turtle.
b.
an earthworm.
c.
a fruit fly.
d.
a crab.
e.
a mollusc.
 

 45. 

If one were to separate these eight cells and attempt to culture them individually, then what is most likely to happen?
a.
All eight cells will die immediately.
b.
Each cell will survive but will experience immediate cessation of further growth and cell division.
c.
Each cell will continue development, but only into an inviable embryo that lacks many parts.
d.
Each cell will develop into a full-sized, normal embryo.
e.
Each cell will develop into a smaller-than-average, but otherwise normal, embryo.
 

 46. 

If an undisturbed embryo is allowed to develop further, then one should expect that
a.
the first opening of the gastrula will ultimately serve as the mouth.
b.
upon metamorphosis, the resulting trochophore larva will gain a notochord.
c.
upon gastrulation, a solid ball of cells will be produced.
d.
both A and B
e.
both B and C
 

 47. 

The most ancient branch point in animal phylogeny is that between having
a.
radial or bilateral symmetry.
b.
a well-defined head or no head.
c.
diploblastic or triploblastic embryos.
d.
true tissues or no tissues.
e.
a body cavity or no body cavity.
 

 48. 

With the current molecular-based phylogeny in mind, rank the following from most inclusive to least inclusive.

1.
ecdysozoan
2.
protostome
3.
eumetazoan
4.
triploblastic
a.
4, 2, 3, 1
b.
4, 3, 1, 2
c.
3, 4, 1, 2
d.
3, 4, 2, 1
e.
4, 3, 2, 1
 

 49. 

What does recent evidence from molecular systematics reveal about the relationship between grades and clades?
a.
They are one and the same.
b.
There is no relationship.
c.
Some, but not all, grades reflect evolutionary relatedness.
d.
Grades have their basis in, and flow from, clades.
e.
Each branch point on a cladogram is associated with the evolution of a new grade.
 

 50. 

What is characteristic of all ecdysozoans?
a.
the deuterostome condition
b.
some kind of exoskeleton, or hard outer covering
c.
a pseudocoelom
d.
agile, speedy, and powerful locomotion
e.
the diploblastic condition
 

 51. 

What kind of data should probably have the greatest impact on animal taxonomy in the coming decades?
a.
fossil evidence
b.
comparative morphology of living species
c.
nucleotide sequences of homologous genes
d.
similarities in metabolic pathways
e.
the number and size of chromosomes within nuclei
 

 52. 

Phylogenetic trees are best described as
a.
true and inerrant statements about evolutionary relationships.
b.
hypothetical portrayals of evolutionary relationships.
c.
the most accurate representations possible of genetic relationships among taxa.
d.
theories of evolution.
e.
the closest things to absolute certainty that modern systematics can produce.
 

 53. 

According to the evidence collected so far, the animal kingdom is
a.
monophyletic.
b.
paraphyletic.
c.
polyphyletic.
d.
euphyletic.
e.
multiphyletic.
 

 54. 

The common ancestor of all animals was probably a
a.
bacterium.
b.
prokaryote.
c.
plant.
d.
fungus.
e.
protist.
 

 55. 

If a multicellular animal lacks true tissues, then it can be classified among the
a.
eumetazoans.
b.
metazoans.
c.
protozoans.
d.
lophotrochozoans.
e.
hydrozoans.
 

 56. 

According to both the molecular- and morphology-based animal phylogenies, the following are all protostomes except
a.
molluscs.
b.
echinoderms.
c.
segmented worms.
d.
insects.
e.
spiders.
 

 57. 

Which of the following organisms are deuterostomes?
a.
molluscs
b.
annelids
c.
echinoderms
d.
chordates
e.
both C and D
 

 58. 

Which of the following statements concerning animal taxonomy is (are) true?

1.
Animals are more closely related to plants than to fungi.
2.
All animal clades based on body plan have been found to be incorrect.
3.
Kingdom Animalia is monophyletic.
4.
Only animals reproduce by sexual means.
5.
Animals are thought to have evolved from flagellated protists similar to modern choanoflagellates.
a.
5
b.
1, 3
c.
2, 4
d.
3, 5
e.
3, 4, 5
 

 59. 

If the current molecular evidence regarding animal origins is well substantiated in the future, then what will be true of any contrary evidence regarding the origin of animals derived from the fossil record?
a.
The contrary fossil evidence will be seen as a hoax.
b.
The fossil evidence will be understood to have been incorrect because it is incomplete.
c.
The fossil record will be ignored.
d.
Phylogenies involving even the smallest bit of fossil evidence will need to be discarded.
e.
Only phylogenies based solely on fossil evidence will need to be discarded.
 
 
The following questions refer to the Figure A below (morphological) and Figure B (molecular) phylogenetic trees of the animal kingdom.

ap_unit9a_invertebr_files/i0630000.jpg

A. MORPHOLOGICAL

ap_unit9a_invertebr_files/i0630001.jpg

B. MOLECULAR
 

 60. 

According to the molecular phylogeny, which of these phyla is not monophyletic?
a.
Porifera
b.
Cnidaria
c.
Chordata
d.
Phoronida
e.
Rotifera
 

 61. 

Within the morphological phylogeny, which shared derived character is emphasized to the point of causing several phyla to be placed in an entirely different branch of the bilaterian clade, relative to their position on the molecular phylogeny?
a.
calcareous spicules
b.
bilateral symmetry
c.
deuterostomy
d.
pseudocoelom
e.
cnidocytes
 

 62. 

Which distinction is given more emphasis by the morphological phylogeny than by the molecular phylogeny?
a.
metazoan and eumetazoan
b.
radial and bilateral
c.
true coelom and pseudocoelom
d.
protostome and deuterostome
e.
molting and lack of molting
 

 63. 

According to the molecular phylogeny, but not according to the morphological phylogeny, ____ are more derived than ____.
a.
rotifers; phoronids
b.
ctenophores; cnidarians
c.
ectoprocta; brachiopods
d.
arthropods; annelids
e.
calcareous sponges; siliceous sponges
 

 64. 

Which two phyla below are most closely related to each other in both phylogenies?
a.
Annelida and Arthropoda
b.
Echinodermata and Chordata
c.
Arthropoda and Nematoda
d.
Mollusca and Platyhelminthes
e.
Ectoprocta and Brachiopoda
 

 65. 

Which of these pairs of phyla have more apparent molecular similarity to each other than they have morphological similarity?
a.
Arthropoda and Annelida
b.
Cnidaria and Ctenophora
c.
Chordata and Ectoprocta
d.
Arthropoda and Nematoda
e.
Mollusca and Nemertea
 

 66. 

What are the cells in a sponge that are primarily responsible for trapping food particles from circulating water?
a.
amoebocytes
b.
choanocytes
c.
mesohyl cells
d.
pore cells (porocytes)
e.
epidermal cells
 

 67. 

Which of the following are not associated with sponges?
a.
oscula
b.
spongocoels
c.
cnidocytes
d.
spicules
e.
amoebocytes
 

 68. 

A structurally complex sponge would be expected to have
a.
a multi-branched spongocoel.
b.
wandering amoebocytes.
c.
multiple oscula.
d.
A and B only
e.
A, B, and C
 

 69. 

A sponge's skeletal materials (spicules, spongin) are manufactured by the
a.
pore cells.
b.
epidermal cells.
c.
choanocytes.
d.
zygotes.
e.
amoebocytes.
 

 70. 

In the mesohyl of various undisturbed sponges, one is likely to observe (at one time or another) all of the following except
a.
amoebocytes.
b.
spicules.
c.
spongin.
d.
zygotes.
e.
choanocytes.
 

 71. 

Which chemical is not normally found in any sponges?
a.
chitin
b.
spongin
c.
calcium carbonate
d.
silica
e.
cribrostatin
 

 72. 

Which of these factors, when used to label the horizontal axis of the graph in the figure below, would account most directly for the shape of the plot?

ap_unit9a_invertebr_files/i0760000.jpg
a.
spongin concentration (gm/unit volume)
b.
rate of cribrostatin synthesis (molecules/ unit time)
c.
number of amoebocytes per sponge
d.
number of spicules per sponge
e.
number of choanocytes per sponge
 

 73. 

In terms of food capture, which sponge cell is most similar to the cnidocyte?
a.
amoebocyte
b.
choanocyte
c.
gamete
d.
epidermal cell
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