Multiple Choice
Identify the
choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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Use the figure below to answer the following questions.
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1.
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Which drawing depicts the electron configuration of neon (  Ne)? a. | Drawing A | b. | Drawing B | c. | Drawing
C | d. | Drawing D | e. | Drawing E |
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Use the information extracted from the periodic table in the figure below to
answer the following questions.
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2.
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How many electrons does an atom of sulfur have in its valence shell?
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3.
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What is the valence of an atom with six electrons in its outer electron
shell?
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4.
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What do atoms form when they share electron pairs?
a. | elements | b. | ions | c. | aggregates | d. | isotopes | e. | molecules |
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5.
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A van der Waals interaction is the weak attraction between
a. | the electrons of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby
molecule. | b. | the nucleus of one molecule and the electrons of a nearby
molecule. | c. | a polar molecule and a nearby nonpolar molecule. | d. | a polar molecule and
a nearby molecule that is also polar. | e. | a nonpolar molecule and a nearby molecule that
is also nonpolar. |
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6.
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The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is attracted to the
slight positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?
a. | a covalent bond | b. | a hydrogen bond | c. | an ionic
bond | d. | a hydrophilic bond | e. | a hydrophobic
bond |
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7.
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Early 19th-century scientists believed that living organisms differed from
nonliving things as a result of possessing a "life force" that could create organic
molecules from inorganic matter. The term given to this belief is
a. | organic synthesis. | b. | vitalism. | c. | mechanism. | d. | organic evolution. | e. | inorganic
synthesis. |
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8.
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Which of the following contains nitrogen in addition to carbon, oxygen, and
hydrogen?
a. | an alcohol such as ethanol | b. | a monosaccharide such as
glucose | c. | a steroid such as testosterone | d. | an amino acid such as
glycine | e. | a hydrocarbon such as benzene |
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9.
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In which of the structures are the atoms bonded by ionic bonds?
a. | A | b. | B | c. | C | d. | C, D, and E only | e. | none of the
structures |
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Use the figure below to answer the following questions.
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10.
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Which is a carbonyl functional group?
a. | Group A | b. | Group B | c. | Group
C | d. | Group D | e. | Group E |
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Use the molecules shown in the figure below to answer the following
questions..
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11.
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Which molecule contains an amino functional group, but is not an amino
acid?
a. | Molecule A | b. | Molecule B | c. | Molecule
C | d. | Molecule D | e. | Molecule E |
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12.
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Upon chemical analysis, a particular protein was found to contain 556 amino
acids. How many peptide bonds are present in this protein?
a. | 139 | b. | 554 | c. | 555 | d. | 556 | e. | 558 |
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13.
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The figure below best illustrates the  a. | secondary structure of a polypeptide. | b. | tertiary structure of a
polypeptide. | c. | quaternary structure of a protein. | d. | double helix structure of
DNA. | e. | primary structure of a polysaccharide. |
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14.
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The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is –CH2-OH.
The R group or side chain of the amino acid alanine is –CH3. Where would you expect
to find these amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution?
a. | Serine would be in the interior, and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular
protein. | b. | Alanine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular
protein. | c. | Both serine and alanine would be in the interior of the globular
protein. | d. | Both serine and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular
protein. | e. | Both serine and alanine would be in the interior and on the exterior of the globular
protein. |
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The following questions are based on the 15 molecules illustrated below. Each
molecule may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
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15.
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Which of the following molecules is (are) a carbohydrate?
a. | 1 and 4 | b. | 6 | c. | 12 | d. | 5 and 14 | e. | all of the
above |
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16.
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Which of the following correctly lists the order in which cellular
components will be found in the pellet when homogenized cells are treated with increasingly rapid
spins in a centrifuge?
a. | ribosomes, nucleus, mitochondria | b. | chloroplasts, ribosomes,
vacuoles | c. | nucleus, ribosomes, chloroplasts | d. | vacuoles, ribosomes,
nucleus | e. | nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes |
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17.
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Which of the following are prokaryotic cells?
a. | plants | b. | fungi | c. | bacteria | d. | animals | e. | B and C
only |
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18.
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Which of the following comparisons between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is
incorrect?
a. | The lack of organelles in prokaryotes means that they are structurally less complex
than eukaryotes. | b. | The lack of internal membranes means that prokaryotes cannot compartmentalize
function to the same extent as eukaryotes. | c. | All membrane function in prokaryotes is
accomplished in the plasma membrane, while in eukaryotes, these functions are more distributed among
the organelles. | d. | The specialization of function in organelles suggests that eukaryotes will contain a
wider variety of phospholipids than prokaryotes. | e. | The lack of organelles in prokaryotes means
that the basic cellular functions are different in prokaryotes than in
eukaryotes. |
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19.
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Which of the following statements correctly describes some aspect of
protein excretion in prokaryotic cells?
a. | Prokaryotes are unlikely to be able to excrete proteins because they lack an
endomembrane system. | b. | The mechanism of protein excretion in
prokaryotes is probably the same as that in eukaryotes. | c. | Proteins that are
excreted by prokaryotes are synthesized on ribosomes that are bound to the cytoplasmic surface of the
plasma membrane. | d. | In prokaryotes, the ribosomes that are used for the synthesis of secreted proteins
are located outside of the cell. | e. | Prokaryotes contain large pores in their plasma
membrane that permit the movement of proteins out of the cell. |
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20.
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All of the following structures and proteins are directly associated with
movement in cells or by cells except
a. | cilia. | b. | dynein. | c. | actin. | d. | flagella. | e. | centrosomes. |
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21.
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All of the following serve an important role in determining or maintaining the
structure of plant cells. Which of the following are distinct from the others in terms of
composition?
a. | microtubules | b. | microfilaments | c. | plant cell
walls | d. | intermediate filaments | e. | nuclear lamina |
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22.
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The surface of an integral membrane protein would be best described as
a. | hydrophilic. | b. | hydrophobic. | c. | amphipathic. | d. | completely covered with
phospholipids. | e. | exposed on only one surface of the membrane. |
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23.
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Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why unsaturated fatty
acids help keep any membrane more fluid at lower temperatures?
a. | The double bonds form a kink in the fatty acid tail, forcing adjacent lipids to be
further apart. | b. | Unsaturated fatty acids have a higher cholesterol content. | c. | Unsaturated fatty
acids permit more water in the interior of the membrane. | d. | The double bonds
block interaction among the hydrophilic head groups of the lipids. | e. | The double bonds
result in a shorter fatty acid tail. |
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24.
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Of the following functions, which is most important for the glycoproteins and
glycolipids of animal cell membranes?
a. | facilitated diffusion of molecules down their concentration
gradients | b. | active transport of molecules against their concentration
gradients | c. | maintaining the integrity of a fluid mosaic membrane | d. | maintaining membrane
fluidity at low temperatures | e. | a cell's ability to distinguish one type
of neighboring cell from another |
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25.
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What membrane-surface molecules are thought to be most important as cells
recognize each other?
a. | phospholipids | b. | integral proteins | c. | peripheral
proteins | d. | cholesterol | e. | glycoproteins |
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26.
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Which of the following is (are) true for anabolic pathways?
a. | They do not depend on enzymes. | b. | They are highly regulated sequences of chemical
reactions. | c. | They consume energy to build up polymers from monomers. | d. | They release energy
as they degrade polymers to monomers. | e. | both B and C |
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27.
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Which of the following statements about metabolism is incorrect?
a. | Metabolism is an emergent property of life at the level of
organisms. | b. | Metabolism manages the utilization of materials and energy
resources. | c. | The uptake of water associated with the hydrolysis of biological polymers is part of
metabolism. | d. | Metabolism depends on a constant supply of energy. | e. | None of these
statements about metabolism is incorrect. |
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28.
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Which of the following statements is not representative of the second law of
thermodynamics?
a. | Conversion of energy from one form to another is always accompanied by some loss of
free energy. | b. | Heat represents a form of energy that cannot be used by most organisms to do
work. | c. | Without an input of energy, organisms would tend towards increasing
entropy. | d. | Cells require a constant input of energy to maintain their high level of
organization. | e. | Every energy transformation by a cell decreases the entropy of the
universe. |
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29.
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Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?
a. | Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic
reactions. | b. | It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic
reactions. | c. | Its terminal phosphate group contains a strong covalent bond that when hydrolyzed
releases free energy. | d. | A and B only | e. | A, B and
C |
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30.
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Many different things can alter enzyme activity. Which of the following underlie
all types of enzyme regulation?
a. | changes in the activation energy of the reaction | b. | changes in the
active site of the enzyme | c. | changes in the free energy of the
reaction | d. | A and B only | e. | A, B, and C |
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The following questions are based on the reaction A + B  C + D shown in the figure below.
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31.
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Which of the following bests describes the reaction?
a. | negative  G, spontaneous | b. | positive  G, nonspontaneous | c. | positive  G,
exergonic | d. | negative  G, endergonic | e. |  G of zero, chemical equilibrium |
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32.
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What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking
down complex molecules?
a. | anabolic pathways | b. | catabolic pathways | c. | fermentation
pathways | d. | thermodynamic pathways | e. | bioenergetic
pathways |
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33.
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Which of the following statements about glycolysis false?
a. | Glycolysis has steps involving oxidation-reduction reactions. | b. | The enzymes of
glycolysis are located in the cytosol of the cell. | c. | Glycolysis can operate in the complete absence
of O2. | d. | The end products of glycolysis are CO2 and H2O. | e. | Glycolysis makes ATP
exclusively through substrate-level phosphorylation. |
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34.
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Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which pathway?
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35.
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Fermentation takes place in the
a. | cytosol. | b. | mitochondrial outer
membrane. | c. | mitochondrial inner membrane. | d. | mitochondrial intermembrane
space. | e. | mitochondrial matrix. |
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36.
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Muscle cells in oxygen deprivation convert pyruvate to ____, and in this step
gain____.
a. | lactate; ATP | b. | alcohol; CO2 | c. | alcohol;
ATP | d. | ATP; NADH2 | e. | lactate;
NAD+ |
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37.
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In alcohol fermentation, NAD+ is regenerated from NADH during
the
a. | reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol (ethyl alcohol). | b. | oxidation of
pyruvate to acetyl CoA. | c. | reduction of pyruvate to form
lactate. | d. | oxidation of NAD+ in the citric acid cycle. | e. | phosphorylation of
ADP to form ATP. |
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38.
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What does the chemiosmotic process in chloroplasts involve?
a. | establishment of a proton gradient | b. | diffusion of electrons through the thylakoid
membrane | c. | reduction of water to produce ATP energy | d. | movement of water by
osmosis into the thylakoid space from the stroma | e. | formation of glucose, using carbon dioxide,
NADPH, and ATP |
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39.
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Which statement is false?
a. | Thylakoid membranes contain the photosynthetic pigments. | b. | The O2
released during photosynthesis comes from water. | c. | RuBP is produced during cyclic electron flow in
the light reactions of photosynthesis. | d. | The light reactions of photosynthesis provide
the energy for the Calvin cycle. | e. | When chlorophyll is reduced, it gains
electrons. |
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40.
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In C4 photosynthesis, carbon fixation takes place in the ____ cells,
and then is transferred as malic or aspartic acid to ____ cells, where carbon dioxide is released for
entry into the Calvin cycle.
a. | mesophyll; bundle-sheath | b. | stomatal; mesophyll | c. | bundle-sheath;
epidermal | d. | epidermal; mesophyll | e. | stomatal;
epidermal |
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41.
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What could happen to the target cells in an animal that lack receptors for local
regulators?
a. | They could compensate by receiving nutrients via an a
factor. | b. | They could develop normally in response to neurotransmitters
instead. | c. | They could divide but never reach full size. | d. | They would not be
able to multiply in response to growth factors from nearby cells. | e. | Hormones would not
be able to interact with target cells. |
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42.
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G proteins and G-protein-linked receptors
a. | are found only in animal cells. | b. | are found only in bacterial
cells. | c. | are thought to have evolved very early, because of their similar structure and
function in a wide variety of modern organisms whose common ancestors diverged billions of years
ago. | d. | probably evolved from an adaptation of the citric acid cycle. | e. | are not widespread
in nature and were unimportant in the evolution of eukaryotes. |
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43.
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Membrane receptors that attach phosphates to specific amino acids in proteins
are
a. | not found in humans. | b. | called receptor
tyrosine-kinases. | c. | a class of GTP G-protein signal
receptors. | d. | associated with several bacterial diseases in humans. | e. | important in yeast
mating factors that contain amino acids. |
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44.
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The receptors for a group of signaling molecules known as growth factors are
often
a. | ligand-gated ion channels. | b. | G-protein-linked receptors. | c. | cyclic
AMP. | d. | receptor tyrosine kinases. | e. | neurotransmitters. |
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45.
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Sutherland discovered that epinephrine
a. | signals bypass the plasma membrane of cells. | b. | lowers blood glucose
by binding to liver cells. | c. | interacts with insulin inside muscle
cells. | d. | interacts directly with glycogen phosphorylase. | e. | elevates the
cytosolic concentration of cyclic AMP. |
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46.
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The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a
protein is
a. | phosphorylase. | b. | phosphatase. | c. | protein
kinase. | d. | ATPase. | e. | protease. |
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47.
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Which of the following would be inhibited by a drug that specifically blocks the
addition of phosphate groups to proteins?
a. | G-protein-linked receptor signaling | b. | ligand-gated ion channel
signaling | c. | adenylyl cyclase activity | d. | phosphatase activity | e. | receptor tyrosine
kinase activity |
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48.
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If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?
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49.
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If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that
interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be
arrested?
a. | anaphase | b. | prophase | c. | telophase | d. | metaphase | e. | interphase |
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50.
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Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and
animals is that in plants
a. | the spindles contain microfibrils in addition to microtubules, whereas animal
spindles do not contain microfibrils. | b. | sister chromatids are identical, but they
differ from one another in animals. | c. | a cell plate begins to form at telophase,
whereas animals a cleavage furrow is initiated at that stage. | d. | chromosomes become
attached to the spindle at prophase, whereas in animals chromosomes do not become attached until
anaphase. | e. | spindle poles contain centrioles, whereas spindle poles in animals do
not. |
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51.
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Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?
a. | They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in
culture. | b. | When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell
cycle. | c. | They are not subject to cell cycle controls. | d. | B and C
only | e. | A, B, and C |
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52.
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Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number
of 2n = 16?
a. | The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes. | b. | The species has 16
sets of chromosomes. | c. | There are 8 homologous
pairs. | d. | During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate
chromosomes. | e. | A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes. |
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53.
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Which of the following is the term for a human cell that contains 22 pairs of
autosomes and two X chromosomes?
a. | an unfertilized egg cell | b. | a sperm cell | c. | a male somatic
cell | d. | a female somatic cell | e. | both A and D |
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54.
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In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and fertilization results in
a. | spores. | b. | gametophytes. | c. | zygotes. | d. | sporophytes. | e. | clones. |
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55.
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All of the following are functions of meiosis in plants except
a. | production of spores. | b. | reduction of chromosome number by
half. | c. | independent assortment of chromosomes. | d. | crossing over and recombination of homologous
chromosomes. | e. | production of identical daughter cells. |
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56.
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Which of the following is true of the process of meiosis?
a. | Two diploid cells result. | b. | Four diploid cells result. | c. | Four haploid cells
result. | d. | Four autosomes result. | e. | Four chiasmata
result. |
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57.
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Which sample might represent an animal cell in G2 phase of the cell
cycle?
a. | I | b. | II | c. | III | d. | both I and II | e. | both II and
III |
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The following questions refer to the essential steps in meiosis described
below.
| 1. formation of four new nuclei, each with half
the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus | | 2.
alignment of tetrads at the metaphase plate | | 3.
separation of sister chromatids | | 4. separation of
the homologues; no uncoupling of the centromere | | 5.
synapsis; chromosomes moving to the middle of the cell in pairs | |
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58.
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From the descriptions above, which of the following is the order that most
logically illustrates a sequence of meiosis?
a. | 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 | b. | 5, 4, 2, 1, 3 | c. | 5, 3, 2, 4,
1 | d. | 4, 5, 2, 1, 3 | e. | 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 |
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59.
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Which of the following statements about Mendel's breeding experiments is
correct?
a. | None of the parental (P) plants were true-breeding. | b. | All of the F2
progeny showed a phenotype that was intermediate between the two parental (P)
phenotypes. | c. | Half of the F1 progeny had the same phenotype as one of the parental (P) plants, and
the other half had the same phenotype as the other parent. | d. | All of the F1
progeny resembled one of the parental (P) plants, but only some of the F2 progeny
did. | e. | none of the above |
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60.
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A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered pea
plants results in offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates
a. | the blending model of genetics. | b. | true-breeding. | c. | dominance. | d. | a dihybrid cross. | e. | the mistakes made by
Mendel. |
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61.
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When crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote, what is the chance of
getting an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
a. | 0% | b. | 25% | c. | 50% | d. | 75% | e. | 100% |
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62.
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P = purple, pp = white. The offspring of a cross between two
heterozygous purple-flowering plants ( Pp  Pp) results
in
a. | all purple-flowered plants. | b. | purple-flowered plants and white-flowered
plants. | c. | two types of white-flowered plants: PP and Pp. | d. | all white-flowered
plants. | e. | all pink-flowered plants. |
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63.
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A couple has three children, all of whom have brown eyes and blond hair. Both
parents are homozygous for brown eyes (BB) but one is a blond (rr) and the other is a
redhead (Rr). What is the probability that their next child will be a brown-eyed
redhead?
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64.
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Which of the following is true regarding linkage maps? They
a. | always have a total of 100 map units. | b. | can be used to pinpoint the precise physical
position of a gene on a chromosome. | c. | are a genetic map based on recombination
frequencies. | d. | require preparation of karyotypes. | e. | reflect the frequency of crossing over between
X and Y chromosomes. |
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65.
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The figure below represents the stained nucleus from a cheek epithelial cell of
an individual whose genotype would probably be  a. | XX. | b. | XY. | c. | XYY. | d. | XXX. | e. | XXY. |
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